CCA-410 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Cloudera CCA-410 @ $ 39.00 only

CCA-410 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Cloudera CCA-410 @ $ 39.00 only

Exam code : CCA-410
Exam name : Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop (CCAH)

Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a
black report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
Answer: E,F
For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what’s the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: A
What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead
DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the
JobTracker receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the
NameNode that the DataNode is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is
temporarily reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available;
Question No : 1
Question No : 2
Question No : 3
the client then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
Answer: A
Explanation: How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the
DataNodes in the cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning
properly. A Blockreport contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode
notices that it has not recieved a hearbeat message from a data node after a certain
amount of time, the data node is marked as dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the
system begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The
NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one datanode to another. The
replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the data never passes
through the namenode.
Note:If the Name Node stops receiving heartbeats from a Data Node it presumes it to be
dead and any data it had to be gone as well. Based on the block reports it had been
receiving from the dead node, the Name Node knows which copies of blocks died along
with the node and can make the decision to re-replicate those blocks to other Data Nodes.
It will also consult the Rack Awareness data in order to maintain thetwo copies in one rack,
one copy in another rackreplica rule when deciding which Data Node should receive a new
copy of the blocks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures’
How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce
v1 (MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of
available DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and
DataNodes respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and
DataNodes respond.
Question No : 4
Answer: B
Explanation: How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the
DataNodes in the cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning
properly. A Blockreport contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode
notices that it has not recieved a hearbeat message from a data node after a certain
amount of time, the data node is marked as dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the
system begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The
NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one datanode to another. The
replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the data never passes
through the namenode.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures?
Which three distcp features can you utilize on a Hadoop cluster?
A. Use distcp to copy files only between two clusters or more. You cannot use distcp to
copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
B. Use distcp to copy HBase table files.
C. Use distcp to copy physical blocks from the source to the target destination in your
cluster.
D. Use distcp to copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
E. Use distcp to run an internal MapReduce job to copy files.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses
Map/Reduce to effect its distribution, error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands
a list of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of which will copy a partition of
the files specified in the source list. Its Map/Reduce pedigree has endowed it with some
quirks in both its semantics and execution.
Reference: Hadoop DistCp Guide
Question No : 5
How does HDFS Federation help HDFS Scale horizontally?
A. HDFS Federation improves the resiliency of HDFS in the face of network issues by
removing the NameNode as a single-point-of-failure.
B. HDFS Federation allows the Standby NameNode to automatically resume the services
of an active NameNode.
C. HDFS Federation provides cross-data center (non-local) support for HDFS, allowing a
cluster administrator to split the Block Storage outside the local cluster.
D. HDFS Federation reduces the load on any single NameNode by using the multiple,
independent NameNode to manage individual pars of the filesystem namespace.
Answer: D
Explanation: HDFS FederationIn order to scale the name service horizontally, federation
uses multiple independent Namenodes/Namespaces. The Namenodes are federated, that
is, the Namenodes are independent and don’t require coordination with each other. The
datanodes are used as common storage for blocks by all the Namenodes. Each datanode
registers with all the Namenodes in the cluster. Datanodes send periodic heartbeats and
block reports and handles commands from the Namenodes.
Reference: Apache Hadoop 2.0.2-alpha
http://hadoop.apache.org/docs/current/
Choose which best describe a Hadoop cluster's block size storage parameters once you
set the HDFS default block size to 64MB?
A. The block size of files in the cluster can be determined as the block is written.
B. The block size of files in the Cluster will all be multiples of 64MB.
C. The block size of files in the duster will all at least be 64MB.
D. The block size of files in the cluster will all be the exactly 64MB.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Note: What is HDFS Block size? How is it different from traditional file system block size?
In HDFS data is split into blocks and distributed across multiple nodes in the cluster. Each
block is typically 64Mb or 128Mb in size. Each block is replicated multiple times. Default is
to replicate each block three times. Replicas are stored on different nodes. HDFS utilizes
the local file system to store each HDFS block as a separate file. HDFS Block size can not
be compared with the traditional file system block size.
Which MapReduce daemon instantiates user code, and executes map and reduce tasks on
a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. NameNode
B. DataNode
C. JobTracker
D. TaskTracker
E. ResourceManager
F. ApplicationMaster
G. NodeManager
Answer: D
Explanation: A TaskTracker is a slave node daemon in the cluster that accepts tasks
(Map, Reduce and Shuffle operations) from a JobTracker. There is only One Task Tracker
process run on any hadoop slave node. Task Tracker runs on its own JVM process. Every
TaskTracker is configured with a set of slots, these indicate the number of tasks that it can
accept. The TaskTracker starts a separate JVM processes to do the actual work (called as
Task Instance) this is to ensure that process failure does not take down the task tracker.
The TaskTracker monitors these task instances, capturing the output and exit codes. When
the Task instances finish, successfully or not, the task tracker notifies the JobTracker. The
TaskTrackers also send out heartbeat messages to the JobTracker, usually every few
minutes, to reassure the JobTracker that it is still alive. These message also inform the
JobTracker of the number of available slots, so the JobTracker can stay up to date with
where in the cluster work can be delegated.
Question No : 8
Note: How many Daemon processes run on a Hadoop system?
Hadoop is comprised of five separate daemons. Each of these daemon run in its own JVM.
Following 3 Daemons run on Master
nodes NameNode - This daemon stores and maintains the metadata for HDFS.
Secondary NameNode - Performs housekeeping functions for the NameNode.
JobTracker - Manages MapReduce jobs, distributes individual tasks to machines running
the Task Tracker.
Following 2 Daemons run on each Slave nodes
DataNode – Stores actual HDFS data blocks.
TaskTracker - Responsible for instantiating and monitoring individual Map and Reduce
tasks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What is
a Task Tracker in Hadoop? How many instances of TaskTracker run on a Hadoop Cluster
What two processes must you do if you are running a Hadoop cluster with a single
NameNode and six DataNodes, and you want to change a configuration parameter so that
it affects all six DataNodes.
A. You must restart the NameNode daemon to apply the changes to the cluster
B. You must restart all six DataNode daemons to apply the changes to the cluster.
C. You don't need to restart any daemon, as they will pick up changes automatically.
D. You must modify the configuration files on each of the six DataNode machines.
E. You must modify the configuration files on only one of the DataNode machine
F. You must modify the configuration files on the NameNode only. DataNodes read their
configuration from the master nodes.
Answer: A,F
Identify the function performed by the Secondary NameNode daemon on a cluster configured to run with a single NameNode.
A. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs a checkpoint operation on the
files by the NameNode.
B. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode is standby NameNode, ready to failover
and provide high availability.
C. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs deal-time backups of the
NameNode.
D. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode servers as alternate data channel for
clients to reach HDFS, should the NameNode become too busy.
Answer: A
Explanation: The term "secondary name-node" is somewhat misleading. It is not a namenode
in the sense that data-nodes cannot connect to the secondary name-node, and in no
event it can replace the primary name-node in case of its failure.
The only purpose of the secondary name-node is to perform periodic checkpoints. The
secondary name-node periodically downloads current name-node image and edits log files,
joins them into new image and uploads the new image back to the (primary and the only)
name-node.
So if the name-node fails and you can restart it on the same physical node then there is no
need to shutdown data-nodes, just the name-node need to be restarted. If you cannot use
the old node anymore you will need to copy the latest image somewhere else. The latest
image can be found either on the node that used to be the primary before failure if
available; or on the secondary name-node. The latter will be the latest checkpoint without
subsequent edits logs, that is the most recent name space modifications may be missing
there. You will also need to restart the whole cluster in this case.
Reference: Hadoop Wiki, What is the purpose of the secondary name-node?

LOT-405 Exam Questions - Download and Pass IBM LOT-405 @ $ 35.00 only

LOT-405 Exam Questions - Download and Pass IBM LOT-405 @ $ 35.00 only

Exam code : LOT-405
Exam name : IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration Update Exam

What are IBM Notes 9.0 users able to do with the snippets feature?
A. Create snippets of text from a sidebar widget.
B. Cut snippets of text based on a selection formula.
C. Copy snippets of selected text to a new mail message.
D. See the first 100 characters of a message by hovering over the message.
Answer: D
What are the requirements for enabling the Quality of Service (QoS) feature when starting
the IBM Domino server?
A. Add QOS_ENABLE=1 to the notes.ini file and then issue the tell qos resume command
at the remote server console.
B. The Domino server must be run as a service and the tell qos enable command must be
issued at the remote server console.
C. The Domino server must be run as an application and the QOS_ENABLE_PROBING=1
parameter must be added to the dcontroller.ini file.
D. The Domino server must be run under the Java controller and the QOS_ENABLE=1
parameter must be added to the dcontroller.ini and notes.ini files.
Answer: D
Where would an administrator set the option to push out new client preference
parameters?
A. Global settings policy, Custom Client Preferences tab
B. Server Configuration document, Client Preferences tab
C. Custom policy settings document, Custom Settings > Notes.ini tab
D. Desktop policy settings document, Custom Settings > Notes.ini tab
Answer: D
How would enabling "Mark new contacts as private by default" affect users?
A. Users would not be able to send Contacts as vCards to other users.
B. Contacts would automatically be hidden from the default contacts view in the local
address book.
C. Users would be prevented from adding contacts as public as they would not be able to
override the policy setting.
D. Users would have to manually remove the 'Mark private' option when creating new
contacts if they wanted to delegate access to those contacts.
Answer: D
What Program document feature provides more flexibility to an administrator?
A. Server group names can be used in Program documents.
B. Program documents can be triggered to run by a mail-in database.
C. Program documents can use the Microsoft Windows built-in Task Scheduler.
D. Microsoft Active Directory server names can be used in Program documents.
Answer: A
Jan wants to create a Program document in order to run the new Database Maintenance
Tool (dbmt) for mail files on the IBM Domino server. What are two adjustments that Jan
must make to the server's notes.ini file before creating the Program document? (Choose
two.)
A. Remove Updall from the Server Tasks lines in the notes.ini.
B. Set MailFileDisableCompactAbort=1 to temporarily stop the delivery of mail.
C. Set DBMT_FILTER=names.nsf to ensure the Domino Directory is not compacted.
D. Set dbmt-updallThreads=0 to have the Database Maintenance Tool skip operations
performed by Updall.
E. Set dbmt_stdr85mail=$Inbox,$Drafts,$All to ensure key views in mail databases that use
the StdR85Mail template are built.
Answer: A,B
How can an IBM Domino administrator set all new personal contacts created by users to be
private by default?
A. In the mail policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
B. In the desktop policy settings document, enable "Mark new contacts as private by
default".
C. In the security policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by
default".
D. In the Server configuration document, in the iNotes settings, enable "Mark new contacts
as private by default".
Answer: B
Jim enabled Quality of Service (QoS) on the IBM Domino server with values for the
QOS_PROBE_INTERVAL and QOS_PROBE_TIMEOUT parameters of 2 minutes and 10
minutes respectively. After examining the qosctnrlrtimestamp.out file, Jim noticed
messages indicating a probe timeout had occurred. He is concerned that QoS in not
functioning properly because the Domino server was not restarted after the probe timeout.
Why was a server kill/restart not initiated?
A. The Domino server has exceeded the default number of restarts.
B. The Domino server was waiting for a load intensive compact operation to complete.
C. The QOS_RESTART_TIMEOUT parameter must be set to a value greater than 10
minutes.
D. By default, the QoS no kill option is enabled and sends an email notification to the
administrator instead of restarting the server.
Answer: B
Which statement describes the results of enabling "Do not allow users to set return
receipts" Mail policy setting?
A. It controls the default behavior of whether or not a return receipt would be requested for
incoming messages.
B. For incoming messages requesting a return receipt, it prevents the sending of the return
receipt without notifying the user.
C. It disables return receipt settings for both Notes and iNotes users so that they are not
able to manually request a return receipt on outgoing messages.
D. It disables return receipt settings for IBM Notes client users only. IBM iNotes users will
still be able to manually request a return receipt for outgoing messages.
Answer: C
What technique can be used when creating Program documents?
A. Dynamic groups can be used for the "Server to run on" field.
B. Regular expressions can be used in the "Server to run on" field.
C. Pattern matching characters can be used in the "Server to run on" field.
D. Servers can be added to a Program document from the Microsoft Active Directory
connector.
Answer: C
Bill's users are complaining they want to have certain calendar entries more prominent in
the calendar view. How can Bill's users customize calendar entries to make certain entries
more visible?
A. The user can assign a calendar entry to Important Meeting view.
B. The user can utilize the Add Highlight Color action from the Calendar Action bar.
C. The user can choose to add the importance flag to a calendar entry upon creation.
D. The user can use the "Color-code calendar entries by category" feature to highlight
select calendar entries.
Answer: D

1Y0-A24 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Citrix 1Y0-A24 @ $ 35.00 only

1Y0-A24 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Citrix 1Y0-A24 @ $ 35.00 only

Exam code : 1Y0-A24
Exam name : Citrix XenServer 5.6 Administration Exam

QUESTION NO: 1
To successfully configure Role Based Access Control, an administrator must ensure that Active
Directory servers are __________ and __________. (Choose the two correct options to complete
the sentence.)
A. SMB enabled
B. using LDAP authentication
C. using Kerberos authentication
D. synchronized with XenServer using NTP
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Scenario: An administrator is configuring the first XenServer in a pool. The administrator wants to
assign two NICs for redundancy reasons and must ensure that the XenServer can be accessed
using XenCenter.
For which type of traffic must the administrator create a bond to meet the needs of the scenario?
A. Storage
B. External
C. Management
D. Guest virtual machine
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Scenario: Four physical NICs are accessible to XenServer. Two NICs are currently in use. An
administrator looks at the Performance tab and notices that NIC utilization is approaching
maximum bandwidth.
Which can the administrator create to improve performance?
A. Guest VLAN
B. Internal network
C. Bond for management traffic
D. Bond for guest virtual machine traffic
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
A network administrator requested that the XenServer administrator of a resource pool separate
virtual machine backup traffic from guest traffic so that virtual machine backup traffic is routed to
an external backup server.
Which action must the XenServer administrator take to complete this task?
A. Create a VLAN for backup traffic.
B. Assign QoS on the backup traffic.
C. Create an internal network for backup traffic.
D. Assign a dedicated interface for the backup traffic.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
An administrator has to set up a virtual machine to provide DHCP and PXE roles for different
Provisioning services targets running in different VLANs and subnets.
Which two kinds of networks should the administrator add to this virtual machine? (Choose two.)
A. Bonded network with tagged VLAN option
B. Internal network with tagged VLAN option
C. External network with tagged VLAN option
D. Management network with tagged VLAN option
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
An administrator needs to set up a network for testing backup and restore of production virtual
machines.
How could the administrator ensure the restored virtual machines will NOT impact the production
network with minimal effort?
A. Create a new bonded network.
B. Create a new external network.
C. Change the virtual interface to an internal network.
D. Change the virtual interface to the management network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Scenario: A resource pool contains three XenServer hosts. The administrator is configuring high
availability, and no LUNs are available.
Which type of storage must the administrator configure?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. Local
D. iSCSI
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Scenario: A resource pool contains three XenServer hosts. An administrator is NOT able to
configure the high availability feature.
Which two types of storage are supported by the resource pool? (Choose two.)
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
In which scenario would it be appropriate to implement StorageLink Gateway in a XenServer
environment?
A. Virtual machines will be deployed through Lab Manager.
B. The performance alert and reporting service will be utilized.
C. There must be access to native array configuration features.
D. Multiple network protocols are used in the virtualization environment.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which scenario would require a XenServer administrator to ensure that the time on the physical
server hosting a virtual machine and the time on the virtual machine match?
A. A snapshot of the virtual machine will be taken.
B. Migration will be performed on the virtual machine.
C. Workload Balancing will be installed on the virtual machine.
D. The virtual machine will be moved from a storage repository.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Scenario: An administrator needs to create multiple CD images that will be available to all of the
virtual machines attached to a physical XenServer host. A single Windows share is available on
server1 to store these CD images. The Windows share is named "cds."
Which command-line interface command must the administrator execute to create the storage
repository?
A. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> name-label=<"Example SR"> location="server1:\cds"
B. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=user name-label=<"Example SR">
location="\\server1\cds\"
C. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=iso type=iso name-label=<"Example SR">
location="\\server1\cds\"
D. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=user physical-size=7000000 namelabel=<"
Example SR"> location="server1:\cds"
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Scenario: An administrator needs to make a number of CD images available to all of the virtual
machines attached to a physical XenServer host. The administrator has a single NFS export
available on which to store these images. The NFS export has the following characteristics:
- IP address: 192.168.1.1
- NFS Export: /CDs
Which CLI command must the administrator execute to create the storage repository?
A. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=user name-label=<"Example SR">
location="\\192.168.1.1\cds\"
B. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=iso type=iso name-label=<"Example SR">
location="192.168.1.1:/cds"
C. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=iso type=iso name-label=<"Example SR">
location="\\192.168.1.1\cds\"
D. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=user physical-size=7000000 namelabel=<"
Example SR"> location="192.168.1.1:/cds"
Answer: B
Explanation: 

VCAD510 Exam Questions - Download and Pass VMWare VCAD510 @ $ 39.00 only

VCAD510 Exam Questions - Download and Pass VMWare VCAD510 @ $ 39.00 only

Exam Code : VCAD510
Exam Name: VMware Certified Associate – Data Center Virtualization Exam Exam

QUESTION NO: 1
You work for a convenience store chain that has a full data center including shared storage and
many small stores. You want to make sure that data in the stores gets copied to the main data
center. Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
B. Storage DRS
C. vSphere Replication (VR)
D. VSA
Answer: C
Reference:http://searchvirtualstorage.techtarget.com/definition/vSphere-Replication
QUESTION NO: 2
Which VMware product allows for non-disruptive disaster recovery testing?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vSphere Replication
C. Site Recovery Manager
D. vCenter Configuration Manager
Answer: C
Reference:https://www.vmware.com/products/site-recovery-manager/
QUESTION NO: 3
Your manager wants to know how virtual machines are going to benefit the organization. What two
statements accurately explain what virtual machines do? (Choose two.)
A. Allow users to recover deleted files themselves.
B. Reduce your application licensing costs.
C. Provide higher up time than physical servers.
D. Reduce the number of physical servers.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
You are the VMware administrator for your local hospital. A fellow administrator has asked what
role a datastore plays in the environment. Which of the following is a good definition of a
datastore?
A. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to swap local memory content if needed
B. A datastore is used as the destination for the core dump file
C. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to store logs and performance data
D. A datastore is where virtual machine's files are stored
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
You are considering using virtual machines for your new corporate email servers. You are giving
examples to your manager of the benefits this will provide. Which two examples are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Virtual machines can be reverted to prior states to make recovery from accidents simpler.
B. Virtual machines perform faster than physical machines using the same hardware.
C. Virtual machines allow you to add components such as network cards and hard disks while the
VM is running.
D. Virtual machines automatically increase and decrease their allocated memory while running.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:

MB5-705 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Microsoft MB5-705 @ $ 39.00 only

MB5-705 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Microsoft MB5-705 @ $ 39.00 only

Exam Code: MB5-705
Exam Name : Managing Microsoft Dynamics Implementations Exam

Question: 1
You are a project manager, and you use Microsoft Dynamics Sure Step for implementations of
Microsoft Dynamics products for your customers. Your customer's major stakeholders identify
significant changes that will increase the scope of a project. Which two risk response strategies for
the project definition update should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution,
Choose two.)
A. Exploit
B. Avoid
C. Enhance
D. Transfer
E. share
Answer: BD
Question: 2
Which document should you use to manage project deliverables?
A. project scope statement
B. project objectives
C. technical requirements
D. functional requirements
Answer: A
Question: 3
You are a project manager. You find that the personnel in the Human Resources department are
new and not experienced in project work. You need to manage the project resources to
accommodate the lack of project experience in the project. What should you do?
A. Add more time for the project activities.
B. Release the project team.
C. Document the problem and the impact on the scope of the project to the major stakeholders.
D. Document the impact of the lack of experience on the legal requirements.
Answer: A
Question: 4
You are a project manager, and you use Microsoft Dynamics Sure Step Methodology to manage
projects. You need to ensure that quality assurance is part of a project that you are managing. Which
item should you include as part of the project?
A. a comprehensive review with the project stakeholders at the end of the project
B. a review process done at the beginning and checked off at the end of the project with the project
stakeholders
C. quality assurance reviews with stakeholders, scheduled early and often across all project phases
D. a comprehensive review process performed if problems occur during the project or at a
stakeholder's request
Answer: C
Question: 5
As a project manager, you need to incorporate a change request into the project. Which two tasks
must be completed to correctly handle this request when you use the Microsoft Dynamics Sure Step
Methodology? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Complete a customer review and approval.
B. Complete a plan-do-check-act cycle.
C. Complete a change request form.
D. Complete a work breakdown structure.
E. Complete a risk identification.
Answer: AC
Question: 6
Which activity is a precondition for communication management?
A. defining project roles
B. identifying project stakeholders
C. analyzing risk
D. defining project scope
Answer: B
Question: 7
Which statement is an objective of solution envisioning?
A. Create and approve a Fit Gap Analysis.
B. Complete a functional design for a solution.
C. Finalize and approve a project plan.
D. Understand solution requirements.
Answer: D
Question: 8
You are performing a new Microsoft Dynamics GP implementation for a customer who has 10 users.
The customer does not want to use customizations or independent software vendor (ISV) solutions.
Which project type should you use to deliver the implementation?
A. rapid
B. standard
C. agile
D. enterprise
Answer: A
Question: 9
What is an objective of diagnostic preparation?
A. to lead an internal kickoff meeting
B. to gain a preliminary understanding of the customer's needs
C. to plan the running of diagnostic accelerators
D. to prepare high-level project documents
Answer: B
Question: 10
You are performing a Decision Accelerator Offering. In which order should you perform the steps?
A.
1. Meet internally to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
2. Meet with the customer to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
3. Review the presentation and customer sign-off
4. Perform activities
B.
1. Meet with the customer to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
2. Meet internally to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
3. Perform activities
4. Review the presentation and customer sign-off
C.
1. Meet with the customer to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
2. Meet internally to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
3. Review the presentation and customer sign-off
4. Perform activities
D.
1. Meet internally to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
2. Meet with the customer to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
3. Perform activities
4. Review the presentation and customer sign-off
Answer: A 

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Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Questions and Answers: 70

 

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QUESTION 1
Which three of the following are recommended steps for the design phase? (Choose three.)
A. Proof of concept
B. High-level design
C. Competitive market analysis
D. Gap analysis
E. Low-level design
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 2
Which two of the following statements correctly describe how Cisco Prime NCS simplifies
troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. It automatically configures a Cisco AnyConnect SSL tunnel, which allows Cisco
TAC engineers to connect to malfunctioning devices.
B. Cisco Smart Interactions allow network operators to open service requests to Cisco
TAC in a controlled manner.Relevant information such as current configuration, last configuration changes,
and events can be attached by a single mouse click.
C. It enables network operators to open instant messaging conversations with Cisco TAC engineers.
D. It can collect crucial information such as associated devices and their current IP address IP address
and their current IP address and status based on the user's name.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Which three of the following statements are true regarding the design of a technical solution? (Choose three.)
A. The SBA toolkit includes foundation design guides that focus on concepts as
foundation design guides that show detailed configurations.
B. Numerous CVDs are available that provide all the information needed for a successful deployment.
C. Examples of low-level design tools are the Cisco Power Calculator, the Cisco Rack
Space Calculator, and the Cisco DSP Calculator.
D. The technical solution has to be based on the previously defined architecture.
E. CVDs provide proven design of solutions that include only Cisco products,
which ensures single- vendor solutions.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
Which two of following statement correctly describe Cisco Catalyst Medianet capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. End-to-end monitoring and troubleshooting is enabled by Mediatrace and IPSLA
B. Compatible devices can download the Media Service Interface software from the HTTP
server running on the Cisco Catalyst switch.
C. OpEx can be reduced by providing plug-and-play functionality using auto smart
ports and auto QoS features.
D. Bandwidth for video conferences can be reduced by utilizing the Cisco Catalyst built-in
DSPs for local video MCUs.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements best describes the routing vendor landscape?
A. Most competitors have a similar architectural approach to Cisco.
B. Juniper Networks is the strongest competitor in the high-end and SOHO markets.
C. Larger competitors to Cisco include Juniper Networks, Riverbed, and Huawei.
D. AVM is one of the largest Cisco competitors in Germany.
Correct Answer: C

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VMware Certified Professional 5 – Data Center Virtualization (VCP5-DCV) Exam

VMware Certified Professional 5 – Data Center Virtualization (VCP5-DCV) Exam

QUESTION NO: 1
Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining
of poor performance on the application running on the virtual machine.
Performance tools display the results shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning
indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for
memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Memory Resources panel lets you allocate memory resources for a virtual machine and
specify reservations, limits, and shares. Symbolic values Low, Normal, High, and Custom are
compared to the sum of all shares of all virtual machines on the server and, on an ESX host, the
service console.
By decreasing the memory share of a particular system, it receives less memory out of the total
available memory.
QUESTION NO: 3
An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and
finds that the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be
protected? (Choose two.)
A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual
machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual
machine cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Table 3-2. Reasons for Primary VM Not Protected Status
Part 3: Create and Configure Resource Pools (14 questions).
QUESTION NO: 4
Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp. Which three options are available?
(Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running
a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have
been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual
machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on
the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster
from this template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
If you make reservations for your virtual machine’s that are equal to the amount of RAM assigned
to them, swapping and page sharing does not occur. You can over commit pretty heavily if you are
comfortable with poorer performance. If you do not set reservations, ESX host creates a .vswp file
equal to the difference between the amount of physical memory assigned to the virtual machine
and the reservation it has. By default, memory reservations are set to 0. If you have a virtual
machine with 2GB of memory without a reservation, it creates a 2GB .vswpfile when it is powered
on. The virtual machine starts using the .vswp file if the server is out of physical RAM. If you set a
1GB reservation, it creates a 1GB .vswp file. The .vswp files are what allows for memory
overcommitment.
QUESTION NO: 7
What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-
50/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.vcenterhost.doc_50/GUID-3B5AF2B1-C534-4426-
B97A-D14019A8010F.html
QUESTION NO: 8
Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the
datastore alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&extern
alId=1020651
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/topic/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc_50/GUID-
38F95285-DB4F-462F-AFD7-0F4D812B085F.html
QUESTION NO: 9
An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service. What three options are
available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Option Description
QUESTION NO: 10
An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA).
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Understanding Storage Capabilities
A storage capability outlines the quality of service that a storage system can deliver. It is a
guarantee that the storage system can provide a specific set of characteristics for capacity,
performance, availability, redundancy, and so on.
If a storage system uses Storage APIs – Storage Awareness, it informs vCenter Server that it can
guarantee a specific set of storage features by presenting them as a storage capability. vCenter
Server recognizes the capability and adds it to the list of storage capabilities in the Manage
Storage Capabilities dialog box. Such storage capabilities are system-defined. vCenter Server
assigns the system-defined storage capability to each datastore that you create from that storage
system.
NOTE:
Because multiple system capabilities for a datastore are not supported, a datastore that spans
several extents assumes the system capability of only one of its extents.
You can create user-defined storage capabilities and associate them with datastores. You should
associate the same user-defined capability with datastores that guarantee the same level of
storage capabilities. You can associate a user-defined capability with a datastore that already has
a system-defined capability. A datastore can have only one system-defined and only one userdefined
capability at a time.
QUESTION NO: 11
Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-View-4-Composer-DS-EN.pdf (page 1, last
paragraph)
QUESTION NO: 12
Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using
Storage vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility
(EVC) is used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual
machine. The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi
host containing the virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault Tolerance on the virtual machine and
suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose
two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk"
extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk.
Management has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on
demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of
the datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts
of the virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots? (Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible deduplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation: 

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Exam Code: 1D0-610
Exam Name : CIW Web Foundations Associate

QUESTION 1
You are creating a style sheet to format the pages on your company's Web site. One section will have a black
background with white text. What is the hexadecimal reference you would use to specify the text color for this
portion of the Web page?
A. "white"
B. #000000
C. #FFFFFF
D. "255, 255, 255"
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements about virtualization is true?
A. Virtualization enables multiple physical computers to run off of a single virtualized server.
B. In virtualization, you run multiple virtual machines, provided they all use the same operating system.
C. In virtualization, the operating systems of the virtual machines should match the host operating system.
D. Virtualization enables you to run multiple operating systems and applications on a single computer.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which line of code instructs the browser to look for a directory named my site that begins one level higher than
the page you are currently viewing?
A. mysite/index.html
B. /mysite/index.html
C. . ./mysite/index.html
D. http://www.mysite.com/index.Html
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A user is submitting data from a form on your Web page to a database using a CCI script. Which attribute of
the form field elements organizes the user's information into name=value pairs?
A. Name
B. Form
C. Value
D. Method
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which is the preferred approach to communicate important action items in an e-mail message to a co-worker?
A. Write the action items using all capital letters.
B. List the action items in a numbered or bulleted list for clarity.
C. Include emoticons to ensure the recipient understands your humor.
D. Describe all action items at length in a detailed paragraph in the middle of the message.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Digital signatures verify the integrity of the data, verify the identity of the sender, and:
A. Provide data confidentiality.
B. Enforce non-repudiation.
C. Sign digital certificate requests.
D. Create certificate requests.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Gwen works for a small company where she has been asked to find a cost-effective option for providing
comprehensive customer service. The finance, technical support, sales and customer service departments all
need to share information about their customers. Gwen is considering adoption of a customer relationship
management (CRM) application. Which of the following would be the most cost-effective solution?
A. She can purchase a new server, then create and maintain the CRM in-house.
B. She can outsource all customer service so the company can focus on product development.
C. She can contract with a cloud service provider to host the CRM that her company's employees can access.
D. She can hire a programmer to develop and maintain the CRM specific to her company's needs, then have a
service provider host the application.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is used to help non-technical users collectively classify and find information on a site?
A. Tagging
B. A wiki
C. Web feed
D. Ajax
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Sally is a network technician at Acme Corporation. She has been directed to configure the network adapter for
a company laptop so that it can be used to connect to the company network and the Internet. What is one of
the required TCP/IP settings that she will need to configure?
A. MAC address
B. Default gateway
C. Workstation name
D. Loopback address
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Web pages structured with which tag will fail W3C validation tests, no matter what standard is used?
A. <d iv>
B. <table>
C. <header>
D. <aside>
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Consider the following address:
http://www.ClWcertified .com/Certifications/Web_Foundations/iba.php Which of the following is the best
classification for the address?
A. Fully qualified domain name
B. Virtual domain name
C. Relative URL
D. Deep URL
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Consider the following HTML5 code:
The code does not validate as HTML5. Why?
A. The <article> tag is missing.
B. The <meta> tag and its attributes are missing.
C. The <blockquote> tag should be used outside the <p> tags.
D. The !DQCTYPE declaration is missing a reference to the Document Type Definition (DTD).
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
You received a text and a threatening voicemail from an angry customer who wants to immediately discuss the
shortcomings of a recently released product. You are about to walk into a mandatory meeting with your toplevel
leadership team. Which of the following is your best course of action?
A. Continue to send text messages to the customer hoping to smooth things over until you can call him on the
phone after your meeting.
B. Request that the customer send his complaints by e-mail, knowing that any inappropriate communication
will be well documented.
C. Do not respond to the customer.
D. Skip the meeting and call the customer.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is a security threat commonly associated with cloud-based services?
A. Malware
B. Phishing
C. Hypervisor vulnerabilities
D. Operating system vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Configuring a wireless network involves several steps. Which of the following is a task that should be performed
to configure and connect to a wireless network?
A. Configure a certificate authority and configure the trust settings.
B. Configure the wireless AP's SSID, encryption level and shared key.
C. Connect your computer to the same network hub as the wireless AP.
D. Connect your computer to the same network switch as the wireless AP.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
You are modifying an existing Web page that needs to validate as HTML5 code. To create a rectangular
hotspot in an image map that links to www.xyz.com, which code would you nest inside the <map> </map>
container tags?
A. <area shape="rectangle" coords="7S. 0. 156. 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
B. <area shape="rectangle" coords="78, 0. 156, 75" href="www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
C. <area shape="rect" coords="78, 0, 156. 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
D. <area shape="rect" coords="78. 0. 156, 75" href=http://www.xyz.com />
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which of the following strategies is recommended when conducting keyword searches?
A. Use nouns instead of verbs for keywords.
B. Use verbs instead of nouns for keywords.
C. Use as few keywords as possible.
D. Include at least one preposition such as "the" or "an" in your list of keywords.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following computer system maintenance tasks can help improve file access performance?
A. Use a SCSI drive instead of a SATA drive
B. Use a SATA drive instead of an EIDE drive
C. Defragment the drive using the following command: fdisk -d -w c:/
D. Defragment the drive using the following command: defrag c: -w
Correct Answer: D 

Key4pass 1D0-610 Exam Questions - Download and Pass CIW 1D0-610

Key4pass 1D0-610 Exam Questions - Download and Pass CIW 1D0-610

Exam Code: 1D0-610
Exam Name : CIW Web Foundations Associate

QUESTION 1
You are creating a style sheet to format the pages on your company's Web site. One section will have a black
background with white text. What is the hexadecimal reference you would use to specify the text color for this
portion of the Web page?
A. "white"
B. #000000
C. #FFFFFF
D. "255, 255, 255"
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements about virtualization is true?
A. Virtualization enables multiple physical computers to run off of a single virtualized server.
B. In virtualization, you run multiple virtual machines, provided they all use the same operating system.
C. In virtualization, the operating systems of the virtual machines should match the host operating system.
D. Virtualization enables you to run multiple operating systems and applications on a single computer.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which line of code instructs the browser to look for a directory named my site that begins one level higher than
the page you are currently viewing?
A. mysite/index.html
B. /mysite/index.html
C. . ./mysite/index.html
D. http://www.mysite.com/index.Html
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A user is submitting data from a form on your Web page to a database using a CCI script. Which attribute of
the form field elements organizes the user's information into name=value pairs?
A. Name
B. Form
C. Value
D. Method
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which is the preferred approach to communicate important action items in an e-mail message to a co-worker?
A. Write the action items using all capital letters.
B. List the action items in a numbered or bulleted list for clarity.
C. Include emoticons to ensure the recipient understands your humor.
D. Describe all action items at length in a detailed paragraph in the middle of the message.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Digital signatures verify the integrity of the data, verify the identity of the sender, and:
A. Provide data confidentiality.
B. Enforce non-repudiation.
C. Sign digital certificate requests.
D. Create certificate requests.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Gwen works for a small company where she has been asked to find a cost-effective option for providing
comprehensive customer service. The finance, technical support, sales and customer service departments all
need to share information about their customers. Gwen is considering adoption of a customer relationship
management (CRM) application. Which of the following would be the most cost-effective solution?
A. She can purchase a new server, then create and maintain the CRM in-house.
B. She can outsource all customer service so the company can focus on product development.
C. She can contract with a cloud service provider to host the CRM that her company's employees can access.
D. She can hire a programmer to develop and maintain the CRM specific to her company's needs, then have a
service provider host the application.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is used to help non-technical users collectively classify and find information on a site?
A. Tagging
B. A wiki
C. Web feed
D. Ajax
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Sally is a network technician at Acme Corporation. She has been directed to configure the network adapter for
a company laptop so that it can be used to connect to the company network and the Internet. What is one of
the required TCP/IP settings that she will need to configure?
A. MAC address
B. Default gateway
C. Workstation name
D. Loopback address
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Web pages structured with which tag will fail W3C validation tests, no matter what standard is used?
A.
B. C.

D.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11 Consider the following address: http://www.ClWcertified .com/Certifications/Web_Foundations/iba.php Which of the following is the best classification for the address? A. Fully qualified domain name B. Virtual domain name C. Relative URL D. Deep URL Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12 Consider the following HTML5 code: The code does not validate as HTML5. Why? A. The

tag is missing. B. The tag and its attributes are missing. C. The

tag should be used outside the tags. D. The !DQCTYPE declaration is missing a reference to the Document Type Definition (DTD). Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13 You received a text and a threatening voicemail from an angry customer who wants to immediately discuss the shortcomings of a recently released product. You are about to walk into a mandatory meeting with your toplevel leadership team. Which of the following is your best course of action? A. Continue to send text messages to the customer hoping to smooth things over until you can call him on the phone after your meeting. B. Request that the customer send his complaints by e-mail, knowing that any inappropriate communication will be well documented. C. Do not respond to the customer. D. Skip the meeting and call the customer. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14 Which of the following is a security threat commonly associated with cloud-based services? A. Malware B. Phishing C. Hypervisor vulnerabilities D. Operating system vulnerabilities Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15 Configuring a wireless network involves several steps. Which of the following is a task that should be performed to configure and connect to a wireless network? A. Configure a certificate authority and configure the trust settings. B. Configure the wireless AP's SSID, encryption level and shared key. C. Connect your computer to the same network hub as the wireless AP. D. Connect your computer to the same network switch as the wireless AP. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16 You are modifying an existing Web page that needs to validate as HTML5 code. To create a rectangular hotspot in an image map that links to www.xyz.com, which code would you nest inside the container tags? A. B. C. D. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17 Which of the following strategies is recommended when conducting keyword searches? A. Use nouns instead of verbs for keywords. B. Use verbs instead of nouns for keywords. C. Use as few keywords as possible. D. Include at least one preposition such as "the" or "an" in your list of keywords. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18 Which of the following computer system maintenance tasks can help improve file access performance? A. Use a SCSI drive instead of a SATA drive B. Use a SATA drive instead of an EIDE drive C. Defragment the drive using the following command: fdisk -d -w c:/ D. Defragment the drive using the following command: defrag c: -w Correct Answer: D 

Microsoft Dynamics C5 2012 Application Consultant Exam - MB5-700 Microsoft

Microsoft Dynamics C5 2012 Application Consultant Exam

Question: 1
Which command will launch the Microsoft Dynamics C5 native application and display the
c5Menu.OWN menu?
A. C5W32.exe -mOWN
B. C5W32.exe/OWN
C. C5W32.exe -menuOWN
D. C5W32.exe –OWNmenu
Answer: C
Question: 2
Which statement about the Print2Office functionality is true?
A. Only invoices and credit notes can be sent as PDF attachments to email messages.
B. Reports cannot be sent as PDF attachments to email messages.
C. Only reports saved in the Invoice/ Document journals on customers and vendors can be sent as
PDF attachments to email messages.
D. All reports can be sent as PDF attachments to email messages.
Answer: A
Question: 3
You have a file that contains an account number and email addresses for all customers. You must
use the file to ensure that an email address is entered in the Customers table for each customer. You
add the account number and email address to the fields list in the Data manipulation dialog box.
Which value should you select for the Action property?
A. INSERT
B. IMPORT/UPDATE
C. UPDATE
D. DELETE
Answer: C
Question: 4
You use the Report generator to create a report that includes the name and email address of alt
customers. Which field type should you specify for the customer name and email address?
A. DB
B. REAL
C. BLANK
D. STR
Answer: A
Question: 5
Which statement about password management within the Microsoft Dynamics C5 application is
true?
A. Passwords cannot be changed for any users from within the Microsoft Dynamics C5 application.
B. The password can be changed only for the supervisor account.
C. Passwords can be changed for all users except the supervisor account.
D. Passwords can be changed for all users including the supervisor account.
Answer: B
Question: 6
The Microsoft Dynamics C5 application is installed in a network domain environment. You need to
add a user to the application. Which syntax should you use when specifying the user name?
A. domain@username
B. domain/username
C. domain\username
D. domain.username
Answer: C
Question: 7
To which two applications can reports be printed by using the Print20ffice functionality? (Each
correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Microsoft PowerPoint
B. Microsoft Publisher
C. Microsoft OneNote
D. Microsoft Word
E. Microsoft Access
F. Microsoft Excel
Answer: BF

Key4pass 1z0-117 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Oracle 1z0-117

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