CCA-410 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Cloudera CCA-410 @ $ 39.00 only

CCA-410 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Cloudera CCA-410 @ $ 39.00 only

Exam code : CCA-410
Exam name : Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop (CCAH)

Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a
black report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
Answer: E,F
For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what’s the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: A
What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead
DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the
JobTracker receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the
NameNode that the DataNode is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is
temporarily reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available;
Question No : 1
Question No : 2
Question No : 3
the client then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
Answer: A
Explanation: How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the
DataNodes in the cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning
properly. A Blockreport contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode
notices that it has not recieved a hearbeat message from a data node after a certain
amount of time, the data node is marked as dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the
system begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The
NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one datanode to another. The
replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the data never passes
through the namenode.
Note:If the Name Node stops receiving heartbeats from a Data Node it presumes it to be
dead and any data it had to be gone as well. Based on the block reports it had been
receiving from the dead node, the Name Node knows which copies of blocks died along
with the node and can make the decision to re-replicate those blocks to other Data Nodes.
It will also consult the Rack Awareness data in order to maintain thetwo copies in one rack,
one copy in another rackreplica rule when deciding which Data Node should receive a new
copy of the blocks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures’
How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce
v1 (MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of
available DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and
DataNodes respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and
DataNodes respond.
Question No : 4
Answer: B
Explanation: How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the
DataNodes in the cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning
properly. A Blockreport contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode
notices that it has not recieved a hearbeat message from a data node after a certain
amount of time, the data node is marked as dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the
system begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The
NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one datanode to another. The
replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the data never passes
through the namenode.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures?
Which three distcp features can you utilize on a Hadoop cluster?
A. Use distcp to copy files only between two clusters or more. You cannot use distcp to
copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
B. Use distcp to copy HBase table files.
C. Use distcp to copy physical blocks from the source to the target destination in your
cluster.
D. Use distcp to copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
E. Use distcp to run an internal MapReduce job to copy files.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses
Map/Reduce to effect its distribution, error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands
a list of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of which will copy a partition of
the files specified in the source list. Its Map/Reduce pedigree has endowed it with some
quirks in both its semantics and execution.
Reference: Hadoop DistCp Guide
Question No : 5
How does HDFS Federation help HDFS Scale horizontally?
A. HDFS Federation improves the resiliency of HDFS in the face of network issues by
removing the NameNode as a single-point-of-failure.
B. HDFS Federation allows the Standby NameNode to automatically resume the services
of an active NameNode.
C. HDFS Federation provides cross-data center (non-local) support for HDFS, allowing a
cluster administrator to split the Block Storage outside the local cluster.
D. HDFS Federation reduces the load on any single NameNode by using the multiple,
independent NameNode to manage individual pars of the filesystem namespace.
Answer: D
Explanation: HDFS FederationIn order to scale the name service horizontally, federation
uses multiple independent Namenodes/Namespaces. The Namenodes are federated, that
is, the Namenodes are independent and don’t require coordination with each other. The
datanodes are used as common storage for blocks by all the Namenodes. Each datanode
registers with all the Namenodes in the cluster. Datanodes send periodic heartbeats and
block reports and handles commands from the Namenodes.
Reference: Apache Hadoop 2.0.2-alpha
http://hadoop.apache.org/docs/current/
Choose which best describe a Hadoop cluster's block size storage parameters once you
set the HDFS default block size to 64MB?
A. The block size of files in the cluster can be determined as the block is written.
B. The block size of files in the Cluster will all be multiples of 64MB.
C. The block size of files in the duster will all at least be 64MB.
D. The block size of files in the cluster will all be the exactly 64MB.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Note: What is HDFS Block size? How is it different from traditional file system block size?
In HDFS data is split into blocks and distributed across multiple nodes in the cluster. Each
block is typically 64Mb or 128Mb in size. Each block is replicated multiple times. Default is
to replicate each block three times. Replicas are stored on different nodes. HDFS utilizes
the local file system to store each HDFS block as a separate file. HDFS Block size can not
be compared with the traditional file system block size.
Which MapReduce daemon instantiates user code, and executes map and reduce tasks on
a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. NameNode
B. DataNode
C. JobTracker
D. TaskTracker
E. ResourceManager
F. ApplicationMaster
G. NodeManager
Answer: D
Explanation: A TaskTracker is a slave node daemon in the cluster that accepts tasks
(Map, Reduce and Shuffle operations) from a JobTracker. There is only One Task Tracker
process run on any hadoop slave node. Task Tracker runs on its own JVM process. Every
TaskTracker is configured with a set of slots, these indicate the number of tasks that it can
accept. The TaskTracker starts a separate JVM processes to do the actual work (called as
Task Instance) this is to ensure that process failure does not take down the task tracker.
The TaskTracker monitors these task instances, capturing the output and exit codes. When
the Task instances finish, successfully or not, the task tracker notifies the JobTracker. The
TaskTrackers also send out heartbeat messages to the JobTracker, usually every few
minutes, to reassure the JobTracker that it is still alive. These message also inform the
JobTracker of the number of available slots, so the JobTracker can stay up to date with
where in the cluster work can be delegated.
Question No : 8
Note: How many Daemon processes run on a Hadoop system?
Hadoop is comprised of five separate daemons. Each of these daemon run in its own JVM.
Following 3 Daemons run on Master
nodes NameNode - This daemon stores and maintains the metadata for HDFS.
Secondary NameNode - Performs housekeeping functions for the NameNode.
JobTracker - Manages MapReduce jobs, distributes individual tasks to machines running
the Task Tracker.
Following 2 Daemons run on each Slave nodes
DataNode – Stores actual HDFS data blocks.
TaskTracker - Responsible for instantiating and monitoring individual Map and Reduce
tasks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What is
a Task Tracker in Hadoop? How many instances of TaskTracker run on a Hadoop Cluster
What two processes must you do if you are running a Hadoop cluster with a single
NameNode and six DataNodes, and you want to change a configuration parameter so that
it affects all six DataNodes.
A. You must restart the NameNode daemon to apply the changes to the cluster
B. You must restart all six DataNode daemons to apply the changes to the cluster.
C. You don't need to restart any daemon, as they will pick up changes automatically.
D. You must modify the configuration files on each of the six DataNode machines.
E. You must modify the configuration files on only one of the DataNode machine
F. You must modify the configuration files on the NameNode only. DataNodes read their
configuration from the master nodes.
Answer: A,F
Identify the function performed by the Secondary NameNode daemon on a cluster configured to run with a single NameNode.
A. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs a checkpoint operation on the
files by the NameNode.
B. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode is standby NameNode, ready to failover
and provide high availability.
C. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs deal-time backups of the
NameNode.
D. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode servers as alternate data channel for
clients to reach HDFS, should the NameNode become too busy.
Answer: A
Explanation: The term "secondary name-node" is somewhat misleading. It is not a namenode
in the sense that data-nodes cannot connect to the secondary name-node, and in no
event it can replace the primary name-node in case of its failure.
The only purpose of the secondary name-node is to perform periodic checkpoints. The
secondary name-node periodically downloads current name-node image and edits log files,
joins them into new image and uploads the new image back to the (primary and the only)
name-node.
So if the name-node fails and you can restart it on the same physical node then there is no
need to shutdown data-nodes, just the name-node need to be restarted. If you cannot use
the old node anymore you will need to copy the latest image somewhere else. The latest
image can be found either on the node that used to be the primary before failure if
available; or on the secondary name-node. The latter will be the latest checkpoint without
subsequent edits logs, that is the most recent name space modifications may be missing
there. You will also need to restart the whole cluster in this case.
Reference: Hadoop Wiki, What is the purpose of the secondary name-node?

LOT-405 Exam Questions - Download and Pass IBM LOT-405 @ $ 35.00 only

LOT-405 Exam Questions - Download and Pass IBM LOT-405 @ $ 35.00 only

Exam code : LOT-405
Exam name : IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration Update Exam

What are IBM Notes 9.0 users able to do with the snippets feature?
A. Create snippets of text from a sidebar widget.
B. Cut snippets of text based on a selection formula.
C. Copy snippets of selected text to a new mail message.
D. See the first 100 characters of a message by hovering over the message.
Answer: D
What are the requirements for enabling the Quality of Service (QoS) feature when starting
the IBM Domino server?
A. Add QOS_ENABLE=1 to the notes.ini file and then issue the tell qos resume command
at the remote server console.
B. The Domino server must be run as a service and the tell qos enable command must be
issued at the remote server console.
C. The Domino server must be run as an application and the QOS_ENABLE_PROBING=1
parameter must be added to the dcontroller.ini file.
D. The Domino server must be run under the Java controller and the QOS_ENABLE=1
parameter must be added to the dcontroller.ini and notes.ini files.
Answer: D
Where would an administrator set the option to push out new client preference
parameters?
A. Global settings policy, Custom Client Preferences tab
B. Server Configuration document, Client Preferences tab
C. Custom policy settings document, Custom Settings > Notes.ini tab
D. Desktop policy settings document, Custom Settings > Notes.ini tab
Answer: D
How would enabling "Mark new contacts as private by default" affect users?
A. Users would not be able to send Contacts as vCards to other users.
B. Contacts would automatically be hidden from the default contacts view in the local
address book.
C. Users would be prevented from adding contacts as public as they would not be able to
override the policy setting.
D. Users would have to manually remove the 'Mark private' option when creating new
contacts if they wanted to delegate access to those contacts.
Answer: D
What Program document feature provides more flexibility to an administrator?
A. Server group names can be used in Program documents.
B. Program documents can be triggered to run by a mail-in database.
C. Program documents can use the Microsoft Windows built-in Task Scheduler.
D. Microsoft Active Directory server names can be used in Program documents.
Answer: A
Jan wants to create a Program document in order to run the new Database Maintenance
Tool (dbmt) for mail files on the IBM Domino server. What are two adjustments that Jan
must make to the server's notes.ini file before creating the Program document? (Choose
two.)
A. Remove Updall from the Server Tasks lines in the notes.ini.
B. Set MailFileDisableCompactAbort=1 to temporarily stop the delivery of mail.
C. Set DBMT_FILTER=names.nsf to ensure the Domino Directory is not compacted.
D. Set dbmt-updallThreads=0 to have the Database Maintenance Tool skip operations
performed by Updall.
E. Set dbmt_stdr85mail=$Inbox,$Drafts,$All to ensure key views in mail databases that use
the StdR85Mail template are built.
Answer: A,B
How can an IBM Domino administrator set all new personal contacts created by users to be
private by default?
A. In the mail policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
B. In the desktop policy settings document, enable "Mark new contacts as private by
default".
C. In the security policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by
default".
D. In the Server configuration document, in the iNotes settings, enable "Mark new contacts
as private by default".
Answer: B
Jim enabled Quality of Service (QoS) on the IBM Domino server with values for the
QOS_PROBE_INTERVAL and QOS_PROBE_TIMEOUT parameters of 2 minutes and 10
minutes respectively. After examining the qosctnrlrtimestamp.out file, Jim noticed
messages indicating a probe timeout had occurred. He is concerned that QoS in not
functioning properly because the Domino server was not restarted after the probe timeout.
Why was a server kill/restart not initiated?
A. The Domino server has exceeded the default number of restarts.
B. The Domino server was waiting for a load intensive compact operation to complete.
C. The QOS_RESTART_TIMEOUT parameter must be set to a value greater than 10
minutes.
D. By default, the QoS no kill option is enabled and sends an email notification to the
administrator instead of restarting the server.
Answer: B
Which statement describes the results of enabling "Do not allow users to set return
receipts" Mail policy setting?
A. It controls the default behavior of whether or not a return receipt would be requested for
incoming messages.
B. For incoming messages requesting a return receipt, it prevents the sending of the return
receipt without notifying the user.
C. It disables return receipt settings for both Notes and iNotes users so that they are not
able to manually request a return receipt on outgoing messages.
D. It disables return receipt settings for IBM Notes client users only. IBM iNotes users will
still be able to manually request a return receipt for outgoing messages.
Answer: C
What technique can be used when creating Program documents?
A. Dynamic groups can be used for the "Server to run on" field.
B. Regular expressions can be used in the "Server to run on" field.
C. Pattern matching characters can be used in the "Server to run on" field.
D. Servers can be added to a Program document from the Microsoft Active Directory
connector.
Answer: C
Bill's users are complaining they want to have certain calendar entries more prominent in
the calendar view. How can Bill's users customize calendar entries to make certain entries
more visible?
A. The user can assign a calendar entry to Important Meeting view.
B. The user can utilize the Add Highlight Color action from the Calendar Action bar.
C. The user can choose to add the importance flag to a calendar entry upon creation.
D. The user can use the "Color-code calendar entries by category" feature to highlight
select calendar entries.
Answer: D

1Y0-A24 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Citrix 1Y0-A24 @ $ 35.00 only

1Y0-A24 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Citrix 1Y0-A24 @ $ 35.00 only

Exam code : 1Y0-A24
Exam name : Citrix XenServer 5.6 Administration Exam

QUESTION NO: 1
To successfully configure Role Based Access Control, an administrator must ensure that Active
Directory servers are __________ and __________. (Choose the two correct options to complete
the sentence.)
A. SMB enabled
B. using LDAP authentication
C. using Kerberos authentication
D. synchronized with XenServer using NTP
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Scenario: An administrator is configuring the first XenServer in a pool. The administrator wants to
assign two NICs for redundancy reasons and must ensure that the XenServer can be accessed
using XenCenter.
For which type of traffic must the administrator create a bond to meet the needs of the scenario?
A. Storage
B. External
C. Management
D. Guest virtual machine
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Scenario: Four physical NICs are accessible to XenServer. Two NICs are currently in use. An
administrator looks at the Performance tab and notices that NIC utilization is approaching
maximum bandwidth.
Which can the administrator create to improve performance?
A. Guest VLAN
B. Internal network
C. Bond for management traffic
D. Bond for guest virtual machine traffic
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
A network administrator requested that the XenServer administrator of a resource pool separate
virtual machine backup traffic from guest traffic so that virtual machine backup traffic is routed to
an external backup server.
Which action must the XenServer administrator take to complete this task?
A. Create a VLAN for backup traffic.
B. Assign QoS on the backup traffic.
C. Create an internal network for backup traffic.
D. Assign a dedicated interface for the backup traffic.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
An administrator has to set up a virtual machine to provide DHCP and PXE roles for different
Provisioning services targets running in different VLANs and subnets.
Which two kinds of networks should the administrator add to this virtual machine? (Choose two.)
A. Bonded network with tagged VLAN option
B. Internal network with tagged VLAN option
C. External network with tagged VLAN option
D. Management network with tagged VLAN option
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
An administrator needs to set up a network for testing backup and restore of production virtual
machines.
How could the administrator ensure the restored virtual machines will NOT impact the production
network with minimal effort?
A. Create a new bonded network.
B. Create a new external network.
C. Change the virtual interface to an internal network.
D. Change the virtual interface to the management network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Scenario: A resource pool contains three XenServer hosts. The administrator is configuring high
availability, and no LUNs are available.
Which type of storage must the administrator configure?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. Local
D. iSCSI
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Scenario: A resource pool contains three XenServer hosts. An administrator is NOT able to
configure the high availability feature.
Which two types of storage are supported by the resource pool? (Choose two.)
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
In which scenario would it be appropriate to implement StorageLink Gateway in a XenServer
environment?
A. Virtual machines will be deployed through Lab Manager.
B. The performance alert and reporting service will be utilized.
C. There must be access to native array configuration features.
D. Multiple network protocols are used in the virtualization environment.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which scenario would require a XenServer administrator to ensure that the time on the physical
server hosting a virtual machine and the time on the virtual machine match?
A. A snapshot of the virtual machine will be taken.
B. Migration will be performed on the virtual machine.
C. Workload Balancing will be installed on the virtual machine.
D. The virtual machine will be moved from a storage repository.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Scenario: An administrator needs to create multiple CD images that will be available to all of the
virtual machines attached to a physical XenServer host. A single Windows share is available on
server1 to store these CD images. The Windows share is named "cds."
Which command-line interface command must the administrator execute to create the storage
repository?
A. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> name-label=<"Example SR"> location="server1:\cds"
B. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=user name-label=<"Example SR">
location="\\server1\cds\"
C. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=iso type=iso name-label=<"Example SR">
location="\\server1\cds\"
D. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=user physical-size=7000000 namelabel=<"
Example SR"> location="server1:\cds"
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Scenario: An administrator needs to make a number of CD images available to all of the virtual
machines attached to a physical XenServer host. The administrator has a single NFS export
available on which to store these images. The NFS export has the following characteristics:
- IP address: 192.168.1.1
- NFS Export: /CDs
Which CLI command must the administrator execute to create the storage repository?
A. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=user name-label=<"Example SR">
location="\\192.168.1.1\cds\"
B. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=iso type=iso name-label=<"Example SR">
location="192.168.1.1:/cds"
C. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=iso type=iso name-label=<"Example SR">
location="\\192.168.1.1\cds\"
D. xe sr-create host-uuid=<valid_uuid> content-type=user physical-size=7000000 namelabel=<"
Example SR"> location="192.168.1.1:/cds"
Answer: B
Explanation: 

VCAD510 Exam Questions - Download and Pass VMWare VCAD510 @ $ 39.00 only

VCAD510 Exam Questions - Download and Pass VMWare VCAD510 @ $ 39.00 only

Exam Code : VCAD510
Exam Name: VMware Certified Associate – Data Center Virtualization Exam Exam

QUESTION NO: 1
You work for a convenience store chain that has a full data center including shared storage and
many small stores. You want to make sure that data in the stores gets copied to the main data
center. Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
B. Storage DRS
C. vSphere Replication (VR)
D. VSA
Answer: C
Reference:http://searchvirtualstorage.techtarget.com/definition/vSphere-Replication
QUESTION NO: 2
Which VMware product allows for non-disruptive disaster recovery testing?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vSphere Replication
C. Site Recovery Manager
D. vCenter Configuration Manager
Answer: C
Reference:https://www.vmware.com/products/site-recovery-manager/
QUESTION NO: 3
Your manager wants to know how virtual machines are going to benefit the organization. What two
statements accurately explain what virtual machines do? (Choose two.)
A. Allow users to recover deleted files themselves.
B. Reduce your application licensing costs.
C. Provide higher up time than physical servers.
D. Reduce the number of physical servers.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
You are the VMware administrator for your local hospital. A fellow administrator has asked what
role a datastore plays in the environment. Which of the following is a good definition of a
datastore?
A. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to swap local memory content if needed
B. A datastore is used as the destination for the core dump file
C. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to store logs and performance data
D. A datastore is where virtual machine's files are stored
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
You are considering using virtual machines for your new corporate email servers. You are giving
examples to your manager of the benefits this will provide. Which two examples are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Virtual machines can be reverted to prior states to make recovery from accidents simpler.
B. Virtual machines perform faster than physical machines using the same hardware.
C. Virtual machines allow you to add components such as network cards and hard disks while the
VM is running.
D. Virtual machines automatically increase and decrease their allocated memory while running.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:

MB5-705 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Microsoft MB5-705 @ $ 39.00 only

MB5-705 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Microsoft MB5-705 @ $ 39.00 only

Exam Code: MB5-705
Exam Name : Managing Microsoft Dynamics Implementations Exam

Question: 1
You are a project manager, and you use Microsoft Dynamics Sure Step for implementations of
Microsoft Dynamics products for your customers. Your customer's major stakeholders identify
significant changes that will increase the scope of a project. Which two risk response strategies for
the project definition update should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution,
Choose two.)
A. Exploit
B. Avoid
C. Enhance
D. Transfer
E. share
Answer: BD
Question: 2
Which document should you use to manage project deliverables?
A. project scope statement
B. project objectives
C. technical requirements
D. functional requirements
Answer: A
Question: 3
You are a project manager. You find that the personnel in the Human Resources department are
new and not experienced in project work. You need to manage the project resources to
accommodate the lack of project experience in the project. What should you do?
A. Add more time for the project activities.
B. Release the project team.
C. Document the problem and the impact on the scope of the project to the major stakeholders.
D. Document the impact of the lack of experience on the legal requirements.
Answer: A
Question: 4
You are a project manager, and you use Microsoft Dynamics Sure Step Methodology to manage
projects. You need to ensure that quality assurance is part of a project that you are managing. Which
item should you include as part of the project?
A. a comprehensive review with the project stakeholders at the end of the project
B. a review process done at the beginning and checked off at the end of the project with the project
stakeholders
C. quality assurance reviews with stakeholders, scheduled early and often across all project phases
D. a comprehensive review process performed if problems occur during the project or at a
stakeholder's request
Answer: C
Question: 5
As a project manager, you need to incorporate a change request into the project. Which two tasks
must be completed to correctly handle this request when you use the Microsoft Dynamics Sure Step
Methodology? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Complete a customer review and approval.
B. Complete a plan-do-check-act cycle.
C. Complete a change request form.
D. Complete a work breakdown structure.
E. Complete a risk identification.
Answer: AC
Question: 6
Which activity is a precondition for communication management?
A. defining project roles
B. identifying project stakeholders
C. analyzing risk
D. defining project scope
Answer: B
Question: 7
Which statement is an objective of solution envisioning?
A. Create and approve a Fit Gap Analysis.
B. Complete a functional design for a solution.
C. Finalize and approve a project plan.
D. Understand solution requirements.
Answer: D
Question: 8
You are performing a new Microsoft Dynamics GP implementation for a customer who has 10 users.
The customer does not want to use customizations or independent software vendor (ISV) solutions.
Which project type should you use to deliver the implementation?
A. rapid
B. standard
C. agile
D. enterprise
Answer: A
Question: 9
What is an objective of diagnostic preparation?
A. to lead an internal kickoff meeting
B. to gain a preliminary understanding of the customer's needs
C. to plan the running of diagnostic accelerators
D. to prepare high-level project documents
Answer: B
Question: 10
You are performing a Decision Accelerator Offering. In which order should you perform the steps?
A.
1. Meet internally to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
2. Meet with the customer to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
3. Review the presentation and customer sign-off
4. Perform activities
B.
1. Meet with the customer to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
2. Meet internally to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
3. Perform activities
4. Review the presentation and customer sign-off
C.
1. Meet with the customer to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
2. Meet internally to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
3. Review the presentation and customer sign-off
4. Perform activities
D.
1. Meet internally to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
2. Meet with the customer to discuss the Decision Accelerator Offering
3. Perform activities
4. Review the presentation and customer sign-off
Answer: A