Apple 9L0-418 Certification Exam Questions - Free Download and Sure Pass
Exam code : 9L0-418
Exam name : Mac Management Basics 10.9
You've set up a software update server. Which is a valid method of configuring client
computers to retrieve updates from your server?
A. In the Sharing pane of System Preferences on the client computers, click Update
Server, then select your server from the Update Servers list
B. Install a configuration profile with a Software Update payload specifying the URL of your
software update server
C. Install an XML file in /Library/SoftwareUpdates/ on the client computers containing the IP
address of your server
D. In the App Store app on the client computers, choose App Store > Preferences, click
Updates, and select your server from the Update Servers list
Answer: B
Reference:http://krypted.com/mac-security/using-the-software-update-service-on-mountainlion-
server/
When creating a network disk image that will be stored at the root of a volume, which
action should you add to the workflow so that the network disk image can be used to start
up a computer?
A. Define Image Source
B. Define NetRestore Source
C. Bless NetBoot Image Folder
D. Enable Automated Installation
E. Create Image
Answer: A
Reference:http://support.apple.com/kb/PH9428
In OS X Server, which feature does the Software Update service provides, but the Caching
service does NOT?
A. The caching of software updates from Apple
B. The caching of software purchased from the Mac App Store
C. The ability to select which Apple software updates are available to managed client
computers
D. The ability to deliver custom-built installation packages to client computers
E. The caching of books purchased through iTunes
Answer: C
You used Terminal to configure an OS X computer to retrieve updates from PretendCo's
internal software update server, but the server is no longer active. How would you point the
client computer back to the Apple Software Update server to retrieve software updates?
A. In Terminal, type sudo defaults delete /Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate
CatalogURLand press Return
B. In App Store preferences, click Reset Software Updates
C. In Terminal, type sudo defaults write /Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate
CatalogURL "http://updates.apple.com:8088/index.sucatalog" and press Return
D. In the General pane of System Preferences, click Reset Software Updates
Answer: C
Reference:http://krypted.com/mac-security/using-the-software-update-service-on-mountainlion-
server/
In the screenshot below, click where you would need to click to see a list of the OS X
computers that Apple Remote Desktop is configured to manage.
Answer:
How can you configure an unmanaged OS X computer to retrieve software updates from a
software update server at updates.pretendcom?
A. In Terminal, type sudo defaults write com.pretendco.updatesSoftwareUpdates and press
Return
B. In Software Update preferences, click the Advanced tab and enter
"updates.pretendco.com" in the URL field
C. In App Store preferences, click the Advanced tab and enter "updates.pretendco.com" in
the Update Server field
D. In Terminal, type sudo
defaultswrite/Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwarellpdateCatalogURL
"http://updates.pretendco.com:8088/index.sucatalog"and press Return
Answer: D
Thursday, August 7, 2014
HP HP0-Y49 Certification Exam Questions - Free Download and Sure Pass
HP HP0-Y49 Certification Exam Questions - Free Download and Sure Pass
Exam code : HP0-Y49
Exam name : Applying HP FlexNetwork Fundamentals
Which open standard allows a switch with PoE support to correctly determine the power
requirements of a connected device?
A. ICMP
B. AutoPower
C. LLDP-MED
D. CDP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the
Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities,
and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. Media
Endpoint Discovery is an enhancement of LLDP, known as LLDP-MED, that provides the
following facilities:
Auto-discovery of LAN policies (such as VLAN, Layer 2 Priority and Differentiated
services settings) enabling plug and play networking.
Device location discovery to allow creation of location databases and, in the case
of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), Enhanced 911 services.
Extended and automated power management of Power over Ethernet (PoE) end
points.
Which statement is true about wireless technologies?
A. 802.11n uses MIMO technology to improve data rates
B. 802.11g uses GIGO technology to improve security.
C. 802.11b/g use an 802.11a-compatible frequency.
D. 802.11a uses the less crowded 2.4 GHz range.
Answer: A
Explanation:
IEEE 802.11n is an amendment to IEEE 802.11-2007 as amended by IEEE 802.11k-2008,
IEEE 802.11r-2008, IEEE 802.11y-2008, and IEEE 802.11w-2009, and builds on previous
802.11 standards by adding multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) and 40 MHz channels to
the PHY (physical layer), and frame aggregation to the MAC layer.
MIMO is a technology that uses multiple antennas to coherently resolve more information
than possible using a single antenna. One way it provides this is through Spatial Division
Multiplexing (SDM), which spatially multiplexes multiple independent data streams,
transferred simultaneously within one spectral channel of bandwidth. MIMO SDM can
significantly increase data throughput as the number of resolved spatial data streams is
increased.
Refer to the exhibit.
Exhibit HP Comware command output.
Examine this output from the Comware command shown in the exhibit. Based on the flag
of ACDEF, what is the status of the aggregated link?
A. Static LACP link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with
load sharing not being performed.
B. Static LACP link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with
load sharing being performed.
C. Static link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with load
sharing being performed.
D. Static link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with load
sharing not being performed.
Answer: B
Which HP ProVision switch command defines 10.1.1.1 as a syslog server?
A. Info-center 10.1.1.1
B. Syslog 10.1.1.1
C. Logging 10.1.1.1
D. Logserver 10.1.1.1
Answer: C
Explanation:
The switch event log is stored in volatile memory and is lost on a reboot. It is best to
configure a syslog server to handle the log on another server in non-volatile memory.
For syslog:
HP-Provision-Switch (config)# logging <IPv4 or IPv6 address>
Reference: http://h10032.www1.hp.com/ctg/Manual/c02667379.pdf
Which command can a network administrator execute on an HP Commware switch to
manage configuration files?
A. Restore startup-configuration
B. Erase startup-configuration
C. Rename config
D. Erase startup-config
Answer: A
Exam name : Applying HP FlexNetwork Fundamentals
Which open standard allows a switch with PoE support to correctly determine the power
requirements of a connected device?
A. ICMP
B. AutoPower
C. LLDP-MED
D. CDP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the
Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities,
and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. Media
Endpoint Discovery is an enhancement of LLDP, known as LLDP-MED, that provides the
following facilities:
Auto-discovery of LAN policies (such as VLAN, Layer 2 Priority and Differentiated
services settings) enabling plug and play networking.
Device location discovery to allow creation of location databases and, in the case
of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), Enhanced 911 services.
Extended and automated power management of Power over Ethernet (PoE) end
points.
Which statement is true about wireless technologies?
A. 802.11n uses MIMO technology to improve data rates
B. 802.11g uses GIGO technology to improve security.
C. 802.11b/g use an 802.11a-compatible frequency.
D. 802.11a uses the less crowded 2.4 GHz range.
Answer: A
Explanation:
IEEE 802.11n is an amendment to IEEE 802.11-2007 as amended by IEEE 802.11k-2008,
IEEE 802.11r-2008, IEEE 802.11y-2008, and IEEE 802.11w-2009, and builds on previous
802.11 standards by adding multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) and 40 MHz channels to
the PHY (physical layer), and frame aggregation to the MAC layer.
MIMO is a technology that uses multiple antennas to coherently resolve more information
than possible using a single antenna. One way it provides this is through Spatial Division
Multiplexing (SDM), which spatially multiplexes multiple independent data streams,
transferred simultaneously within one spectral channel of bandwidth. MIMO SDM can
significantly increase data throughput as the number of resolved spatial data streams is
increased.
Refer to the exhibit.
Exhibit HP Comware command output.
Examine this output from the Comware command shown in the exhibit. Based on the flag
of ACDEF, what is the status of the aggregated link?
A. Static LACP link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with
load sharing not being performed.
B. Static LACP link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with
load sharing being performed.
C. Static link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with load
sharing being performed.
D. Static link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with load
sharing not being performed.
Answer: B
Which HP ProVision switch command defines 10.1.1.1 as a syslog server?
A. Info-center 10.1.1.1
B. Syslog 10.1.1.1
C. Logging 10.1.1.1
D. Logserver 10.1.1.1
Answer: C
Explanation:
The switch event log is stored in volatile memory and is lost on a reboot. It is best to
configure a syslog server to handle the log on another server in non-volatile memory.
For syslog:
HP-Provision-Switch (config)# logging <IPv4 or IPv6 address>
Reference: http://h10032.www1.hp.com/ctg/Manual/c02667379.pdf
Which command can a network administrator execute on an HP Commware switch to
manage configuration files?
A. Restore startup-configuration
B. Erase startup-configuration
C. Rename config
D. Erase startup-config
Answer: A
Brocade 150-820 Certification Exam Questions - Free Download and Sure Pass
Brocade 150-820 Certification Exam Questions - Free Download and Sure Pass
Exam code : 150-820
Exam name : Brocade Certified Ethernet Fabric Professional 2015
QUESTION 1
Which extension to the TRILL protocol allows a Brocade VCS Fabric to scale beyond 4096 VLANs?
A. FGL
B. VxLAN
C. FSPF
D. PVST+
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What are two primary features of Data Center Bridging (DCB)? (Choose two.)
A. Rapid Link Recovery
B. PFC
C. TRILL
D. Enhanced Transmission Selection
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Which two protocols are used to forward L2 traffic within a Brocade VCS Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. TRILL
B. IS-IS
C. FSPF
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
You want to form a single link aggregation group between a third-party switch and multiple Brocade VDX
switches.
Which two conditions must be met? (Choose two.)
A. The links must be the same speed.
B. The nodes must be directly connected to each other.
C. The nodes must be in the same VCS fabric.
D. Brocade proprietary LAGs must be configured.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
Which two Brocade SilkWorm switches are supported in a Brocade VCS Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. 2800
B. 3200
C. 6400
D. 12000
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6
Which M-Series switch is supported in a Brocade VCS Fabric?
A. Mi10K
B. ED-6140
C. ED-5000
D. ED-4500
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which item is unique about a Brocade SilkWorm 2800 switch that is part of a Brocade VCS Fabric?
A. LED panel
B. Serial port
C. Dual Ethernet ports
D. 1 and 2 Gbps speed support
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
What does a blinking red light mean next to a port on a Brocade VDX 6420?
A. The port is not licensed.
B. The port is not in the fabric.
C. The SFP is not present.
D. The SFP has failed.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
According to Brocade best practices, which management utility should be used in a Brocade VCS Fabric?
A. Fabric Manager
B. DCFM
C. CLI
D. EFCM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
What is the name of the ASIC used in Brocade VDX 6430?
A. LOOM
B. CONDOR4
C. HYDRA
D. MERCURY
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
In NOS 3.x and later, how many maximum ISLs can exist in a trunk group between a Brocade VDX 8710 and a
Brocade Mi10K in a Brocade VCS Fabric?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which legacy Brocade switch requires GBICs?
A. SilkWorm 2400
B. SilkWorm 3200
C. SilkWorm 3800
D. SilkWorm 5300
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which Brocade code platform will interoperate with NOS v4.1?
A. M-EOS
B. Fabric OS
C. Jetcore
D. TurboIron
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which vendor's Ethernet fabric solution will directly join a Brocade VCS Fabric?
A. Cisco
B. Juniper Networks
C. F5 Networks
D. Extreme Networks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
After connecting a new server to your four-switch Brocade VCS Fabric, you notice that all the switches have
learned the new server's MAC address.
Which VCS feature is responsible for this behavior?
A. TRILL
B. AMPP
C. eNS
D. vLAG
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which two statements are true about a Brocade VCS Fabric operating in logical chassis mode? (Choose two.)
A. After making a configuration change on the principal switch, you need to commit the change on that switch
for the change to be automatically propagated to the other switches in the fabric.
B. After making a configuration change on the principal switch, you do not need to commit the change for the
change to be automatically propagated to the other switches in the fabric.
C. When viewing the configuration file on the principal switch in the fabric, you will see the configuration for all
other switches in the fabric.
D. When viewing the configuration file on the principal switch in the fabric, you will see only the configuration
for that switch.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
You have a four-switch Brocade VCS Fabric operating in fabric mode. You make an interface level
configuration change on the principal switch.
Which statement is true?
A. You need to commit the changes on the principal switch for it to be propagated to all other switches in the
fabric.
B. You do not need to commit the change on the principal switch for it to be automatically propagated to all
the other switches in the fabric.
C. You need to commit the change on the principal switch; the change will only appear on the principal switch
and it will be persistent across a reload.
D. You do not need to commit the change on the principal switch for it to appear on the principal switch; the
change will be persistent across a reload.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
You have three new Brocade VDX switches that are properly configured to join into a single Brocade VCS
Fabric. You add two links in the same port group between each of the three switches.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A vLAG will form from each switch to the other two switches.
B. An ISL will form between each pair of switches.
C. Two equal least cost paths to each of the other switches will be listed in the Layer 2 routing table.
D. A fabric trunk will form between each pair of switches.
Correct Answer: BD
Exam code : 150-820
Exam name : Brocade Certified Ethernet Fabric Professional 2015
QUESTION 1
Which extension to the TRILL protocol allows a Brocade VCS Fabric to scale beyond 4096 VLANs?
A. FGL
B. VxLAN
C. FSPF
D. PVST+
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What are two primary features of Data Center Bridging (DCB)? (Choose two.)
A. Rapid Link Recovery
B. PFC
C. TRILL
D. Enhanced Transmission Selection
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Which two protocols are used to forward L2 traffic within a Brocade VCS Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. TRILL
B. IS-IS
C. FSPF
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
You want to form a single link aggregation group between a third-party switch and multiple Brocade VDX
switches.
Which two conditions must be met? (Choose two.)
A. The links must be the same speed.
B. The nodes must be directly connected to each other.
C. The nodes must be in the same VCS fabric.
D. Brocade proprietary LAGs must be configured.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
Which two Brocade SilkWorm switches are supported in a Brocade VCS Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. 2800
B. 3200
C. 6400
D. 12000
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6
Which M-Series switch is supported in a Brocade VCS Fabric?
A. Mi10K
B. ED-6140
C. ED-5000
D. ED-4500
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which item is unique about a Brocade SilkWorm 2800 switch that is part of a Brocade VCS Fabric?
A. LED panel
B. Serial port
C. Dual Ethernet ports
D. 1 and 2 Gbps speed support
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
What does a blinking red light mean next to a port on a Brocade VDX 6420?
A. The port is not licensed.
B. The port is not in the fabric.
C. The SFP is not present.
D. The SFP has failed.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
According to Brocade best practices, which management utility should be used in a Brocade VCS Fabric?
A. Fabric Manager
B. DCFM
C. CLI
D. EFCM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
What is the name of the ASIC used in Brocade VDX 6430?
A. LOOM
B. CONDOR4
C. HYDRA
D. MERCURY
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
In NOS 3.x and later, how many maximum ISLs can exist in a trunk group between a Brocade VDX 8710 and a
Brocade Mi10K in a Brocade VCS Fabric?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which legacy Brocade switch requires GBICs?
A. SilkWorm 2400
B. SilkWorm 3200
C. SilkWorm 3800
D. SilkWorm 5300
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which Brocade code platform will interoperate with NOS v4.1?
A. M-EOS
B. Fabric OS
C. Jetcore
D. TurboIron
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which vendor's Ethernet fabric solution will directly join a Brocade VCS Fabric?
A. Cisco
B. Juniper Networks
C. F5 Networks
D. Extreme Networks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
After connecting a new server to your four-switch Brocade VCS Fabric, you notice that all the switches have
learned the new server's MAC address.
Which VCS feature is responsible for this behavior?
A. TRILL
B. AMPP
C. eNS
D. vLAG
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which two statements are true about a Brocade VCS Fabric operating in logical chassis mode? (Choose two.)
A. After making a configuration change on the principal switch, you need to commit the change on that switch
for the change to be automatically propagated to the other switches in the fabric.
B. After making a configuration change on the principal switch, you do not need to commit the change for the
change to be automatically propagated to the other switches in the fabric.
C. When viewing the configuration file on the principal switch in the fabric, you will see the configuration for all
other switches in the fabric.
D. When viewing the configuration file on the principal switch in the fabric, you will see only the configuration
for that switch.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
You have a four-switch Brocade VCS Fabric operating in fabric mode. You make an interface level
configuration change on the principal switch.
Which statement is true?
A. You need to commit the changes on the principal switch for it to be propagated to all other switches in the
fabric.
B. You do not need to commit the change on the principal switch for it to be automatically propagated to all
the other switches in the fabric.
C. You need to commit the change on the principal switch; the change will only appear on the principal switch
and it will be persistent across a reload.
D. You do not need to commit the change on the principal switch for it to appear on the principal switch; the
change will be persistent across a reload.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
You have three new Brocade VDX switches that are properly configured to join into a single Brocade VCS
Fabric. You add two links in the same port group between each of the three switches.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A vLAG will form from each switch to the other two switches.
B. An ISL will form between each pair of switches.
C. Two equal least cost paths to each of the other switches will be listed in the Layer 2 routing table.
D. A fabric trunk will form between each pair of switches.
Correct Answer: BD
Thursday, April 10, 2014
MB2-701 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Microsoft MB2-701 @ $ 39.00 only
MB2-701 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Microsoft MB2-701 @ $ 39.00 only
Exam code : MB2-701
Exam name : Extending Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013
You are running Fetch-based reports in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
Which component should you add to the computer that has Microsoft SQL Server
Reporting Services (SSRS) installed?
A. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Administrative Reports
B. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions
C. SQL Server Configuration Manager
D. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Report Authoring Extension
Answer: B
Which Microsoft Dynamics CRM web resource is used to validate data that is entered in a
te box?
A. XML
B. HTML
C. CSS
D. JavaScript
Answer: D
Which component defines the navigation areas for Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
and Microsoft Dynamics CRM for tablets?
A. SiteMap
B. Application ribbon
C. Style Sheet (CSS)
D. Service endpoint
Answer: A
Which object is used to retrieve the root URL for an organization?
A. GetClientUrl
B. PrependOrgName
C. GetObject
D. GetQueryStringParameters
Answer: A
What is the correct term for a set of components that can be transported between different
Microsoft Dynamics CRM organizations?
A. Solution
B. User settings
C. Extensions
D. Data maps
Answer: B
In Microsoft Dynamics CRM, which feature is included as part of the application framework
model?
A. presentation
B. asynchronous business logic
C. multi-tenancy
D. web services
Answer: A
You are making a manual edit to the Account entity command bar.
Which section of the file customizations.xml for the Account entity should you update?
A. FormXml
B. SiteMap
C. RibbonDiffXml
D. EntityInfo
Answer: C
You are trying to obtain an Account record from Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
You do NOT know the name of the Account record.
Which method should you use to discover the Account record?
A. RetrieveMultiple
B. Create
C. Retrieve
D. Update
Answer: A
Which three actions can be performed on entity records when you use the Open Data
Protocol (OData)?
A. Count
B. Execute
C. Create
D. Delete
E. Update
Answer: C,D,E
Exam code : MB2-701
Exam name : Extending Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013
You are running Fetch-based reports in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
Which component should you add to the computer that has Microsoft SQL Server
Reporting Services (SSRS) installed?
A. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Administrative Reports
B. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions
C. SQL Server Configuration Manager
D. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Report Authoring Extension
Answer: B
Which Microsoft Dynamics CRM web resource is used to validate data that is entered in a
te box?
A. XML
B. HTML
C. CSS
D. JavaScript
Answer: D
Which component defines the navigation areas for Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
and Microsoft Dynamics CRM for tablets?
A. SiteMap
B. Application ribbon
C. Style Sheet (CSS)
D. Service endpoint
Answer: A
Which object is used to retrieve the root URL for an organization?
A. GetClientUrl
B. PrependOrgName
C. GetObject
D. GetQueryStringParameters
Answer: A
What is the correct term for a set of components that can be transported between different
Microsoft Dynamics CRM organizations?
A. Solution
B. User settings
C. Extensions
D. Data maps
Answer: B
In Microsoft Dynamics CRM, which feature is included as part of the application framework
model?
A. presentation
B. asynchronous business logic
C. multi-tenancy
D. web services
Answer: A
You are making a manual edit to the Account entity command bar.
Which section of the file customizations.xml for the Account entity should you update?
A. FormXml
B. SiteMap
C. RibbonDiffXml
D. EntityInfo
Answer: C
You are trying to obtain an Account record from Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
You do NOT know the name of the Account record.
Which method should you use to discover the Account record?
A. RetrieveMultiple
B. Create
C. Retrieve
D. Update
Answer: A
Which three actions can be performed on entity records when you use the Open Data
Protocol (OData)?
A. Count
B. Execute
C. Create
D. Delete
E. Update
Answer: C,D,E
Wednesday, October 16, 2013
CCA-410 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Cloudera CCA-410 @ $ 39.00 only
CCA-410 Exam Questions - Download and Pass Cloudera CCA-410 @ $ 39.00 only
Exam code : CCA-410
Exam name : Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop (CCAH)
Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a
black report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
Answer: E,F
For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what’s the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: A
What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead
DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the
JobTracker receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the
NameNode that the DataNode is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is
temporarily reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available;
Question No : 1
Question No : 2
Question No : 3
the client then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
Answer: A
Explanation: How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the
DataNodes in the cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning
properly. A Blockreport contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode
notices that it has not recieved a hearbeat message from a data node after a certain
amount of time, the data node is marked as dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the
system begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The
NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one datanode to another. The
replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the data never passes
through the namenode.
Note:If the Name Node stops receiving heartbeats from a Data Node it presumes it to be
dead and any data it had to be gone as well. Based on the block reports it had been
receiving from the dead node, the Name Node knows which copies of blocks died along
with the node and can make the decision to re-replicate those blocks to other Data Nodes.
It will also consult the Rack Awareness data in order to maintain thetwo copies in one rack,
one copy in another rackreplica rule when deciding which Data Node should receive a new
copy of the blocks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures’
How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce
v1 (MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of
available DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and
DataNodes respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and
DataNodes respond.
Question No : 4
Answer: B
Explanation: How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the
DataNodes in the cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning
properly. A Blockreport contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode
notices that it has not recieved a hearbeat message from a data node after a certain
amount of time, the data node is marked as dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the
system begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The
NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one datanode to another. The
replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the data never passes
through the namenode.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures?
Which three distcp features can you utilize on a Hadoop cluster?
A. Use distcp to copy files only between two clusters or more. You cannot use distcp to
copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
B. Use distcp to copy HBase table files.
C. Use distcp to copy physical blocks from the source to the target destination in your
cluster.
D. Use distcp to copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
E. Use distcp to run an internal MapReduce job to copy files.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses
Map/Reduce to effect its distribution, error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands
a list of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of which will copy a partition of
the files specified in the source list. Its Map/Reduce pedigree has endowed it with some
quirks in both its semantics and execution.
Reference: Hadoop DistCp Guide
Question No : 5
How does HDFS Federation help HDFS Scale horizontally?
A. HDFS Federation improves the resiliency of HDFS in the face of network issues by
removing the NameNode as a single-point-of-failure.
B. HDFS Federation allows the Standby NameNode to automatically resume the services
of an active NameNode.
C. HDFS Federation provides cross-data center (non-local) support for HDFS, allowing a
cluster administrator to split the Block Storage outside the local cluster.
D. HDFS Federation reduces the load on any single NameNode by using the multiple,
independent NameNode to manage individual pars of the filesystem namespace.
Answer: D
Explanation: HDFS FederationIn order to scale the name service horizontally, federation
uses multiple independent Namenodes/Namespaces. The Namenodes are federated, that
is, the Namenodes are independent and don’t require coordination with each other. The
datanodes are used as common storage for blocks by all the Namenodes. Each datanode
registers with all the Namenodes in the cluster. Datanodes send periodic heartbeats and
block reports and handles commands from the Namenodes.
Reference: Apache Hadoop 2.0.2-alpha
http://hadoop.apache.org/docs/current/
Choose which best describe a Hadoop cluster's block size storage parameters once you
set the HDFS default block size to 64MB?
A. The block size of files in the cluster can be determined as the block is written.
B. The block size of files in the Cluster will all be multiples of 64MB.
C. The block size of files in the duster will all at least be 64MB.
D. The block size of files in the cluster will all be the exactly 64MB.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Note: What is HDFS Block size? How is it different from traditional file system block size?
In HDFS data is split into blocks and distributed across multiple nodes in the cluster. Each
block is typically 64Mb or 128Mb in size. Each block is replicated multiple times. Default is
to replicate each block three times. Replicas are stored on different nodes. HDFS utilizes
the local file system to store each HDFS block as a separate file. HDFS Block size can not
be compared with the traditional file system block size.
Which MapReduce daemon instantiates user code, and executes map and reduce tasks on
a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. NameNode
B. DataNode
C. JobTracker
D. TaskTracker
E. ResourceManager
F. ApplicationMaster
G. NodeManager
Answer: D
Explanation: A TaskTracker is a slave node daemon in the cluster that accepts tasks
(Map, Reduce and Shuffle operations) from a JobTracker. There is only One Task Tracker
process run on any hadoop slave node. Task Tracker runs on its own JVM process. Every
TaskTracker is configured with a set of slots, these indicate the number of tasks that it can
accept. The TaskTracker starts a separate JVM processes to do the actual work (called as
Task Instance) this is to ensure that process failure does not take down the task tracker.
The TaskTracker monitors these task instances, capturing the output and exit codes. When
the Task instances finish, successfully or not, the task tracker notifies the JobTracker. The
TaskTrackers also send out heartbeat messages to the JobTracker, usually every few
minutes, to reassure the JobTracker that it is still alive. These message also inform the
JobTracker of the number of available slots, so the JobTracker can stay up to date with
where in the cluster work can be delegated.
Question No : 8
Note: How many Daemon processes run on a Hadoop system?
Hadoop is comprised of five separate daemons. Each of these daemon run in its own JVM.
Following 3 Daemons run on Master
nodes NameNode - This daemon stores and maintains the metadata for HDFS.
Secondary NameNode - Performs housekeeping functions for the NameNode.
JobTracker - Manages MapReduce jobs, distributes individual tasks to machines running
the Task Tracker.
Following 2 Daemons run on each Slave nodes
DataNode – Stores actual HDFS data blocks.
TaskTracker - Responsible for instantiating and monitoring individual Map and Reduce
tasks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What is
a Task Tracker in Hadoop? How many instances of TaskTracker run on a Hadoop Cluster
What two processes must you do if you are running a Hadoop cluster with a single
NameNode and six DataNodes, and you want to change a configuration parameter so that
it affects all six DataNodes.
A. You must restart the NameNode daemon to apply the changes to the cluster
B. You must restart all six DataNode daemons to apply the changes to the cluster.
C. You don't need to restart any daemon, as they will pick up changes automatically.
D. You must modify the configuration files on each of the six DataNode machines.
E. You must modify the configuration files on only one of the DataNode machine
F. You must modify the configuration files on the NameNode only. DataNodes read their
configuration from the master nodes.
Answer: A,F
Identify the function performed by the Secondary NameNode daemon on a cluster configured to run with a single NameNode.
A. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs a checkpoint operation on the
files by the NameNode.
B. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode is standby NameNode, ready to failover
and provide high availability.
C. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs deal-time backups of the
NameNode.
D. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode servers as alternate data channel for
clients to reach HDFS, should the NameNode become too busy.
Answer: A
Explanation: The term "secondary name-node" is somewhat misleading. It is not a namenode
in the sense that data-nodes cannot connect to the secondary name-node, and in no
event it can replace the primary name-node in case of its failure.
The only purpose of the secondary name-node is to perform periodic checkpoints. The
secondary name-node periodically downloads current name-node image and edits log files,
joins them into new image and uploads the new image back to the (primary and the only)
name-node.
So if the name-node fails and you can restart it on the same physical node then there is no
need to shutdown data-nodes, just the name-node need to be restarted. If you cannot use
the old node anymore you will need to copy the latest image somewhere else. The latest
image can be found either on the node that used to be the primary before failure if
available; or on the secondary name-node. The latter will be the latest checkpoint without
subsequent edits logs, that is the most recent name space modifications may be missing
there. You will also need to restart the whole cluster in this case.
Reference: Hadoop Wiki, What is the purpose of the secondary name-node?
Exam name : Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop (CCAH)
Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a
black report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
Answer: E,F
For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what’s the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: A
What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead
DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the
JobTracker receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the
NameNode that the DataNode is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is
temporarily reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available;
Question No : 1
Question No : 2
Question No : 3
the client then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
Answer: A
Explanation: How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the
DataNodes in the cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning
properly. A Blockreport contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode
notices that it has not recieved a hearbeat message from a data node after a certain
amount of time, the data node is marked as dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the
system begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The
NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one datanode to another. The
replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the data never passes
through the namenode.
Note:If the Name Node stops receiving heartbeats from a Data Node it presumes it to be
dead and any data it had to be gone as well. Based on the block reports it had been
receiving from the dead node, the Name Node knows which copies of blocks died along
with the node and can make the decision to re-replicate those blocks to other Data Nodes.
It will also consult the Rack Awareness data in order to maintain thetwo copies in one rack,
one copy in another rackreplica rule when deciding which Data Node should receive a new
copy of the blocks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures’
How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce
v1 (MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of
available DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and
DataNodes respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and
DataNodes respond.
Question No : 4
Answer: B
Explanation: How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the
DataNodes in the cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning
properly. A Blockreport contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode
notices that it has not recieved a hearbeat message from a data node after a certain
amount of time, the data node is marked as dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the
system begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The
NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one datanode to another. The
replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the data never passes
through the namenode.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures?
Which three distcp features can you utilize on a Hadoop cluster?
A. Use distcp to copy files only between two clusters or more. You cannot use distcp to
copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
B. Use distcp to copy HBase table files.
C. Use distcp to copy physical blocks from the source to the target destination in your
cluster.
D. Use distcp to copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
E. Use distcp to run an internal MapReduce job to copy files.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses
Map/Reduce to effect its distribution, error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands
a list of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of which will copy a partition of
the files specified in the source list. Its Map/Reduce pedigree has endowed it with some
quirks in both its semantics and execution.
Reference: Hadoop DistCp Guide
Question No : 5
How does HDFS Federation help HDFS Scale horizontally?
A. HDFS Federation improves the resiliency of HDFS in the face of network issues by
removing the NameNode as a single-point-of-failure.
B. HDFS Federation allows the Standby NameNode to automatically resume the services
of an active NameNode.
C. HDFS Federation provides cross-data center (non-local) support for HDFS, allowing a
cluster administrator to split the Block Storage outside the local cluster.
D. HDFS Federation reduces the load on any single NameNode by using the multiple,
independent NameNode to manage individual pars of the filesystem namespace.
Answer: D
Explanation: HDFS FederationIn order to scale the name service horizontally, federation
uses multiple independent Namenodes/Namespaces. The Namenodes are federated, that
is, the Namenodes are independent and don’t require coordination with each other. The
datanodes are used as common storage for blocks by all the Namenodes. Each datanode
registers with all the Namenodes in the cluster. Datanodes send periodic heartbeats and
block reports and handles commands from the Namenodes.
Reference: Apache Hadoop 2.0.2-alpha
http://hadoop.apache.org/docs/current/
Choose which best describe a Hadoop cluster's block size storage parameters once you
set the HDFS default block size to 64MB?
A. The block size of files in the cluster can be determined as the block is written.
B. The block size of files in the Cluster will all be multiples of 64MB.
C. The block size of files in the duster will all at least be 64MB.
D. The block size of files in the cluster will all be the exactly 64MB.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Note: What is HDFS Block size? How is it different from traditional file system block size?
In HDFS data is split into blocks and distributed across multiple nodes in the cluster. Each
block is typically 64Mb or 128Mb in size. Each block is replicated multiple times. Default is
to replicate each block three times. Replicas are stored on different nodes. HDFS utilizes
the local file system to store each HDFS block as a separate file. HDFS Block size can not
be compared with the traditional file system block size.
Which MapReduce daemon instantiates user code, and executes map and reduce tasks on
a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. NameNode
B. DataNode
C. JobTracker
D. TaskTracker
E. ResourceManager
F. ApplicationMaster
G. NodeManager
Answer: D
Explanation: A TaskTracker is a slave node daemon in the cluster that accepts tasks
(Map, Reduce and Shuffle operations) from a JobTracker. There is only One Task Tracker
process run on any hadoop slave node. Task Tracker runs on its own JVM process. Every
TaskTracker is configured with a set of slots, these indicate the number of tasks that it can
accept. The TaskTracker starts a separate JVM processes to do the actual work (called as
Task Instance) this is to ensure that process failure does not take down the task tracker.
The TaskTracker monitors these task instances, capturing the output and exit codes. When
the Task instances finish, successfully or not, the task tracker notifies the JobTracker. The
TaskTrackers also send out heartbeat messages to the JobTracker, usually every few
minutes, to reassure the JobTracker that it is still alive. These message also inform the
JobTracker of the number of available slots, so the JobTracker can stay up to date with
where in the cluster work can be delegated.
Question No : 8
Note: How many Daemon processes run on a Hadoop system?
Hadoop is comprised of five separate daemons. Each of these daemon run in its own JVM.
Following 3 Daemons run on Master
nodes NameNode - This daemon stores and maintains the metadata for HDFS.
Secondary NameNode - Performs housekeeping functions for the NameNode.
JobTracker - Manages MapReduce jobs, distributes individual tasks to machines running
the Task Tracker.
Following 2 Daemons run on each Slave nodes
DataNode – Stores actual HDFS data blocks.
TaskTracker - Responsible for instantiating and monitoring individual Map and Reduce
tasks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What is
a Task Tracker in Hadoop? How many instances of TaskTracker run on a Hadoop Cluster
What two processes must you do if you are running a Hadoop cluster with a single
NameNode and six DataNodes, and you want to change a configuration parameter so that
it affects all six DataNodes.
A. You must restart the NameNode daemon to apply the changes to the cluster
B. You must restart all six DataNode daemons to apply the changes to the cluster.
C. You don't need to restart any daemon, as they will pick up changes automatically.
D. You must modify the configuration files on each of the six DataNode machines.
E. You must modify the configuration files on only one of the DataNode machine
F. You must modify the configuration files on the NameNode only. DataNodes read their
configuration from the master nodes.
Answer: A,F
Identify the function performed by the Secondary NameNode daemon on a cluster configured to run with a single NameNode.
A. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs a checkpoint operation on the
files by the NameNode.
B. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode is standby NameNode, ready to failover
and provide high availability.
C. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs deal-time backups of the
NameNode.
D. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode servers as alternate data channel for
clients to reach HDFS, should the NameNode become too busy.
Answer: A
Explanation: The term "secondary name-node" is somewhat misleading. It is not a namenode
in the sense that data-nodes cannot connect to the secondary name-node, and in no
event it can replace the primary name-node in case of its failure.
The only purpose of the secondary name-node is to perform periodic checkpoints. The
secondary name-node periodically downloads current name-node image and edits log files,
joins them into new image and uploads the new image back to the (primary and the only)
name-node.
So if the name-node fails and you can restart it on the same physical node then there is no
need to shutdown data-nodes, just the name-node need to be restarted. If you cannot use
the old node anymore you will need to copy the latest image somewhere else. The latest
image can be found either on the node that used to be the primary before failure if
available; or on the secondary name-node. The latter will be the latest checkpoint without
subsequent edits logs, that is the most recent name space modifications may be missing
there. You will also need to restart the whole cluster in this case.
Reference: Hadoop Wiki, What is the purpose of the secondary name-node?
LOT-405 Exam Questions - Download and Pass IBM LOT-405 @ $ 35.00 only
LOT-405 Exam Questions - Download and Pass IBM LOT-405 @ $ 35.00 only
Exam code : LOT-405
Exam name : IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration Update Exam
What are IBM Notes 9.0 users able to do with the snippets feature?
A. Create snippets of text from a sidebar widget.
B. Cut snippets of text based on a selection formula.
C. Copy snippets of selected text to a new mail message.
D. See the first 100 characters of a message by hovering over the message.
Answer: D
What are the requirements for enabling the Quality of Service (QoS) feature when starting
the IBM Domino server?
A. Add QOS_ENABLE=1 to the notes.ini file and then issue the tell qos resume command
at the remote server console.
B. The Domino server must be run as a service and the tell qos enable command must be
issued at the remote server console.
C. The Domino server must be run as an application and the QOS_ENABLE_PROBING=1
parameter must be added to the dcontroller.ini file.
D. The Domino server must be run under the Java controller and the QOS_ENABLE=1
parameter must be added to the dcontroller.ini and notes.ini files.
Answer: D
Where would an administrator set the option to push out new client preference
parameters?
A. Global settings policy, Custom Client Preferences tab
B. Server Configuration document, Client Preferences tab
C. Custom policy settings document, Custom Settings > Notes.ini tab
D. Desktop policy settings document, Custom Settings > Notes.ini tab
Answer: D
How would enabling "Mark new contacts as private by default" affect users?
A. Users would not be able to send Contacts as vCards to other users.
B. Contacts would automatically be hidden from the default contacts view in the local
address book.
C. Users would be prevented from adding contacts as public as they would not be able to
override the policy setting.
D. Users would have to manually remove the 'Mark private' option when creating new
contacts if they wanted to delegate access to those contacts.
Answer: D
What Program document feature provides more flexibility to an administrator?
A. Server group names can be used in Program documents.
B. Program documents can be triggered to run by a mail-in database.
C. Program documents can use the Microsoft Windows built-in Task Scheduler.
D. Microsoft Active Directory server names can be used in Program documents.
Answer: A
Jan wants to create a Program document in order to run the new Database Maintenance
Tool (dbmt) for mail files on the IBM Domino server. What are two adjustments that Jan
must make to the server's notes.ini file before creating the Program document? (Choose
two.)
A. Remove Updall from the Server Tasks lines in the notes.ini.
B. Set MailFileDisableCompactAbort=1 to temporarily stop the delivery of mail.
C. Set DBMT_FILTER=names.nsf to ensure the Domino Directory is not compacted.
D. Set dbmt-updallThreads=0 to have the Database Maintenance Tool skip operations
performed by Updall.
E. Set dbmt_stdr85mail=$Inbox,$Drafts,$All to ensure key views in mail databases that use
the StdR85Mail template are built.
Answer: A,B
How can an IBM Domino administrator set all new personal contacts created by users to be
private by default?
A. In the mail policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
B. In the desktop policy settings document, enable "Mark new contacts as private by
default".
C. In the security policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by
default".
D. In the Server configuration document, in the iNotes settings, enable "Mark new contacts
as private by default".
Answer: B
Jim enabled Quality of Service (QoS) on the IBM Domino server with values for the
QOS_PROBE_INTERVAL and QOS_PROBE_TIMEOUT parameters of 2 minutes and 10
minutes respectively. After examining the qosctnrlrtimestamp.out file, Jim noticed
messages indicating a probe timeout had occurred. He is concerned that QoS in not
functioning properly because the Domino server was not restarted after the probe timeout.
Why was a server kill/restart not initiated?
A. The Domino server has exceeded the default number of restarts.
B. The Domino server was waiting for a load intensive compact operation to complete.
C. The QOS_RESTART_TIMEOUT parameter must be set to a value greater than 10
minutes.
D. By default, the QoS no kill option is enabled and sends an email notification to the
administrator instead of restarting the server.
Answer: B
Which statement describes the results of enabling "Do not allow users to set return
receipts" Mail policy setting?
A. It controls the default behavior of whether or not a return receipt would be requested for
incoming messages.
B. For incoming messages requesting a return receipt, it prevents the sending of the return
receipt without notifying the user.
C. It disables return receipt settings for both Notes and iNotes users so that they are not
able to manually request a return receipt on outgoing messages.
D. It disables return receipt settings for IBM Notes client users only. IBM iNotes users will
still be able to manually request a return receipt for outgoing messages.
Answer: C
What technique can be used when creating Program documents?
A. Dynamic groups can be used for the "Server to run on" field.
B. Regular expressions can be used in the "Server to run on" field.
C. Pattern matching characters can be used in the "Server to run on" field.
D. Servers can be added to a Program document from the Microsoft Active Directory
connector.
Answer: C
Bill's users are complaining they want to have certain calendar entries more prominent in
the calendar view. How can Bill's users customize calendar entries to make certain entries
more visible?
A. The user can assign a calendar entry to Important Meeting view.
B. The user can utilize the Add Highlight Color action from the Calendar Action bar.
C. The user can choose to add the importance flag to a calendar entry upon creation.
D. The user can use the "Color-code calendar entries by category" feature to highlight
select calendar entries.
Answer: D
Exam name : IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration Update Exam
What are IBM Notes 9.0 users able to do with the snippets feature?
A. Create snippets of text from a sidebar widget.
B. Cut snippets of text based on a selection formula.
C. Copy snippets of selected text to a new mail message.
D. See the first 100 characters of a message by hovering over the message.
Answer: D
What are the requirements for enabling the Quality of Service (QoS) feature when starting
the IBM Domino server?
A. Add QOS_ENABLE=1 to the notes.ini file and then issue the tell qos resume command
at the remote server console.
B. The Domino server must be run as a service and the tell qos enable command must be
issued at the remote server console.
C. The Domino server must be run as an application and the QOS_ENABLE_PROBING=1
parameter must be added to the dcontroller.ini file.
D. The Domino server must be run under the Java controller and the QOS_ENABLE=1
parameter must be added to the dcontroller.ini and notes.ini files.
Answer: D
Where would an administrator set the option to push out new client preference
parameters?
A. Global settings policy, Custom Client Preferences tab
B. Server Configuration document, Client Preferences tab
C. Custom policy settings document, Custom Settings > Notes.ini tab
D. Desktop policy settings document, Custom Settings > Notes.ini tab
Answer: D
How would enabling "Mark new contacts as private by default" affect users?
A. Users would not be able to send Contacts as vCards to other users.
B. Contacts would automatically be hidden from the default contacts view in the local
address book.
C. Users would be prevented from adding contacts as public as they would not be able to
override the policy setting.
D. Users would have to manually remove the 'Mark private' option when creating new
contacts if they wanted to delegate access to those contacts.
Answer: D
What Program document feature provides more flexibility to an administrator?
A. Server group names can be used in Program documents.
B. Program documents can be triggered to run by a mail-in database.
C. Program documents can use the Microsoft Windows built-in Task Scheduler.
D. Microsoft Active Directory server names can be used in Program documents.
Answer: A
Jan wants to create a Program document in order to run the new Database Maintenance
Tool (dbmt) for mail files on the IBM Domino server. What are two adjustments that Jan
must make to the server's notes.ini file before creating the Program document? (Choose
two.)
A. Remove Updall from the Server Tasks lines in the notes.ini.
B. Set MailFileDisableCompactAbort=1 to temporarily stop the delivery of mail.
C. Set DBMT_FILTER=names.nsf to ensure the Domino Directory is not compacted.
D. Set dbmt-updallThreads=0 to have the Database Maintenance Tool skip operations
performed by Updall.
E. Set dbmt_stdr85mail=$Inbox,$Drafts,$All to ensure key views in mail databases that use
the StdR85Mail template are built.
Answer: A,B
How can an IBM Domino administrator set all new personal contacts created by users to be
private by default?
A. In the mail policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
B. In the desktop policy settings document, enable "Mark new contacts as private by
default".
C. In the security policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by
default".
D. In the Server configuration document, in the iNotes settings, enable "Mark new contacts
as private by default".
Answer: B
Jim enabled Quality of Service (QoS) on the IBM Domino server with values for the
QOS_PROBE_INTERVAL and QOS_PROBE_TIMEOUT parameters of 2 minutes and 10
minutes respectively. After examining the qosctnrlrtimestamp.out file, Jim noticed
messages indicating a probe timeout had occurred. He is concerned that QoS in not
functioning properly because the Domino server was not restarted after the probe timeout.
Why was a server kill/restart not initiated?
A. The Domino server has exceeded the default number of restarts.
B. The Domino server was waiting for a load intensive compact operation to complete.
C. The QOS_RESTART_TIMEOUT parameter must be set to a value greater than 10
minutes.
D. By default, the QoS no kill option is enabled and sends an email notification to the
administrator instead of restarting the server.
Answer: B
Which statement describes the results of enabling "Do not allow users to set return
receipts" Mail policy setting?
A. It controls the default behavior of whether or not a return receipt would be requested for
incoming messages.
B. For incoming messages requesting a return receipt, it prevents the sending of the return
receipt without notifying the user.
C. It disables return receipt settings for both Notes and iNotes users so that they are not
able to manually request a return receipt on outgoing messages.
D. It disables return receipt settings for IBM Notes client users only. IBM iNotes users will
still be able to manually request a return receipt for outgoing messages.
Answer: C
What technique can be used when creating Program documents?
A. Dynamic groups can be used for the "Server to run on" field.
B. Regular expressions can be used in the "Server to run on" field.
C. Pattern matching characters can be used in the "Server to run on" field.
D. Servers can be added to a Program document from the Microsoft Active Directory
connector.
Answer: C
Bill's users are complaining they want to have certain calendar entries more prominent in
the calendar view. How can Bill's users customize calendar entries to make certain entries
more visible?
A. The user can assign a calendar entry to Important Meeting view.
B. The user can utilize the Add Highlight Color action from the Calendar Action bar.
C. The user can choose to add the importance flag to a calendar entry upon creation.
D. The user can use the "Color-code calendar entries by category" feature to highlight
select calendar entries.
Answer: D
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